JIPMAT 2023 · Question Paper & Solutions

NTA · IIM Bodh Gaya & Jammu

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Official question paper · For practice and educational use only. On mobile, the PDF may open in your default reader.

Worked solutions — JIPMAT 2023

Every question, solved step by step. Each answer is checked against the official key printed with the paper — 98 of 100 solutions reach it. Try each question before opening it.

The other 2 questions are flagged. The official key is always shown; the flag says what the problem is.

  • 1 key looks wrong — our working reaches a different answer from the official key
  • 1 more than one answer — more than one answer is defensible

Quantitative Ability

Q1 (I) Boys-and-girls work problem needs 32 extra girls; (II) A, B, C efficiency problem gives B and C together 54 6/11 days.

Answer: D —

Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true (printed option text reads 'Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is true', an evident misprint)

Statement (I). Let one boy do and one girl do of the work per day.

So . Then .

The last in 2 days needs a daily rate of . The current team gives , so more is needed, i.e. 30 girls, not 32. Statement (I) is false.

Statement (II). A does 6% in 6 days, so A takes 100 days; C takes twice as long, 200 days. B is more efficient than C, so B's efficiency is of C's and B takes days.

Statement (II) is true.

Option D is the 'I false, II true' slot (its printed wording repeats 'true', a typo), matching the key.

Q2 Number of integral solutions of $7(y+1/y)-2(y^2+1/y^2)=9$.

Answer: B —

1

Put , so .

  • : has no real roots.
  • : or .

Only is an integer, so there is 1 integral solution.

Q3 (I) Difference, sum, product of two numbers in ratio 1:5:12 means product 18; (II) last digit of $2^{91}$ is 6.

Answer: B —

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.

Statement (I). Let , , . Then , , so . The numbers are 6 and 4 and their product is 24, not 18. False.

Statement (II). Last digits of powers of 2 cycle with period 4. , so ends in 8, not 6. False.

Both are false.

Q4 Knockout chess championship with 300 entrants, no draws; total matches played.

Answer: C —

299

Every match eliminates exactly one player, and the tournament ends when one champion remains. So 299 players must be eliminated, needing 299 matches.

Q5 Total seconds in P weeks, P days, P hours, P minutes and P seconds.

Answer: D —

694861P

Q6 Rs 90000: items worth Rs 63000 bought, rest at 15% compound interest; after 2 years items sold at 80%. Percentage change in assets.

Answer: C —

-4.325%

Items cost , so goes to the bank.

Bank after 2 years: .

Items sold at 80%: .

Total , a change of .

Q7 Number of proper divisors of 7200, excluding 1 and 7200.

Answer: B —

52

, so the number of divisors is .

Excluding 1 and 7200 leaves 52.

Q8 Circumference minus radius is 37 cm, $\pi=22/7$; find the circumference.

Answer: C —

44 cm

Circumference cm.

Q9 P(A)=0.25, P(B)=0.50, P(A∩B)=0.14; probability that neither occurs.

Answer: C —

0.39

Q10 Which statements about circle tangents are true: touches at two points; at most two parallel tangents; none through an interior point.

Answer: D —

B and C Only

  • A is false. A tangent touches a circle at exactly one point (a line meeting it at two points is a secant).
  • B is true. For any given direction there are exactly two tangents, at the two ends of the diameter perpendicular to that direction, so at most two tangents can be parallel to each other.
  • C is true. Every line through an interior point cuts the circle at two points, so no tangent passes through it.

Hence B and C only.

Q11 Simplify $\sqrt{3+\sqrt5}$.

Answer: B —

Try with and .

are roots of , giving .

Check: . ✓

Options A, C, D square to , and respectively, none of which equals .

Q12 Which are true: mean of x, y, z is y implies x+z=2y; a stated median is 43; a stated mode is 3.

Answer: D —

A, B and C

  • A: . True.
  • B: Sorted: 15, 28, 31, 32, 43, 44, 51, 56, 72. With 9 values the median is the 5th, 43. True.
  • C: In 2, 3, 4, 5, 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 3 the value 3 occurs four times, more than any other. Mode is 3. True.

All three are true.

Q13 If $k^2-1$ is divisible by 8, then k is:

Answer: D —

an odd integer

If is even, is odd and cannot be divisible by 8.

If is odd, , and is even, so is divisible by 8.

So must be an odd integer. 'Integer' and 'natural number' are too broad (e.g. fails), and 'even' is impossible.

Q14 Earth from a 30 m deep, 7 m diameter well spread over a 22 m × 14 m platform; find platform height.

Answer: B —

3.75 meter

Volume dug .

Platform height m.

Q15 Eight-digit number 5a32465b divisible by 88; find 2a + 5b.

Answer: A —

36

.

Divisibility by 8: the last three digits must be divisible by 8. , so .

Divisibility by 11: digits . Sum of odd places ; even places . Difference must be a multiple of 11, so .

Q16 Pen drives cost in ratio 5:6; 10% profit on each gives ₹22. Profit if A sold at 20% loss, B at 30% profit?

Answer: A —

₹16

Let costs be and . A 10% profit on both: . Costs are ₹100 and ₹120.

New result: .

Total profit ₹16.

Q17 If $\sin\theta-\cos\theta=0$, find $\sin^4\theta+\cos^4\theta$.

Answer: B —

with gives .

Q18 Mean of 25 observations is 36; first 13 average 32, last 13 average 39; find the 13th observation.

Answer: B —

23

Total .

First 13 sum ; last 13 sum .

The 13th observation is counted in both: .

Q19 Number of zeros of a polynomial from its graph (figure).

Answer: B —

3

The zeros of are the points where the graph meets the x-axis.

Reading the figure: the curve rises across the axis on the left, comes back down across it (still left of the origin), stays below the axis near O, and then rises across it again on the right. That is 3 intersection points, so 3 zeros.

Q20 (I) Cylinder r=7, h=10 has volume 1540 cm³; (II) cylinder r=14, h=30 has total surface area 3872 cm² (π=22/7).

Answer: A —

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

(I) . True.

(II) . True.

Q21 Find $(p,q)$ so that $2x+3y=7$ and $2px+(p+q)y=28$ have infinitely many solutions.

Answer: B —

(4, 8)

For infinitely many solutions the coefficients are proportional:

. Then .

.

Q22 Right triangle with $\angle B=90^\circ$, BC=5, AC−AB=1; find $\frac{1+\sin C}{1+\cos C}$.

Answer: D —

By Pythagoras, , i.e. , so .

With : , .

At angle C: opposite side , adjacent , hypotenuse 13. So , .

Q23 Survey of 100 students on English, Hindi, German with given counts; which statements about Hindi, English–Hindi and all-three counts are true.

Answer: D —

A, B and C

Let , , , , none , so .

  • English but not Hindi . B true.
  • English only , so . C true.
  • Inclusion–exclusion: . A true.

All three statements hold.

Q24 (220, y) is an amicable pair; find y.

Answer: B —

284

Proper divisors of 220: 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 11, 20, 22, 44, 55, 110. Their sum is 284.

Check: proper divisors of are 1, 2, 4, 71, 142, summing to 220. ✓ So .

Q25 Two dice: (I) P(even sum) = 0.50; (II) P(even product) = 0.75.

Answer: A —

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

(I) The sum is even when both are even or both odd: . True.

(II) The product is odd only when both are odd: . So . True.

Q26 $2x^3+ax^2+bx+3$ has factor $x-1$ and remainder 15 on division by $x+2$; find (a, b).

Answer: B —

(3,-8)

Factor theorem: .

Remainder theorem: .

Adding: , .

Q27 Downstream takes half the upstream time. (I) boat : current = 2:1; (II) boat 6 km/h means current 2 km/h.

Answer: D —

Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

For the same distance, half the time means double the speed: .

(I) The ratio is , not . False.

(II) km/h. True.

Q28 A, B, D solve independently with probabilities 1/3, 1/3, 1/4; probability that exactly two solve it.

Answer: B —

Q29 (I) $(x^2+3x+1)=(x-2)^2$ is not quadratic; (II) $x^2+2\sqrt3x+3=0$ has real, equal roots.

Answer: A —

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

(I) , which is linear. So it is not a quadratic equation. True.

(II) Discriminant , so the roots are real and equal. True.

Q30 Two 5 cm cubes joined end to end; total surface area of the cuboid.

Answer: B —

250

The cuboid is cm.

(Equivalently, , removing the two hidden faces.)

Q31 Assertion: sum of first hundred even natural numbers divisible by 5 is 45050. Reason: AP sum formula $S=(n/2)(a+l)$.

Answer: D —

[A] is false but (R) is true.

Even numbers divisible by 5 are multiples of 10: (100 terms).

So the Assertion (45050) is false. The Reason is the standard, correct formula for the sum of an AP, so it is true.

Q32 Area of the circle inscribed in a square of side 6 cm.

Answer: D —

9 π

The inscribed circle's diameter equals the side, so cm and area .

Q33 Two cones: radii in ratio 2:3, volumes in ratio 1:3; ratio of heights.

Answer: C —

3:4

, so .

Ratio of heights .

Logical Reasoning

Q34 Marks table for 6 students in 6 subjects: overall percentages of A, B and C.

Answer: D —

No Answer

Table values are percentages (maximum 120 marks per subject):

  • A: 70, 75, 70, 65, 60, 70
  • B: 80, 70, 75, 60, 50, 75
  • C: 75, 72, 71, 70, 60, 65
  • D: 60, 70, 65, 55, 60, 70
  • E: 70, 75, 65, 50, 55, 60
  • F: 65, 70, 60, 65, 50, 60

(order: Physics, Biology, Maths, Geology, Economics, English). All subjects have the same maximum, so a student's overall percentage is the simple average of the six percentages.

  • A:
  • B:
  • C:

No option lists 68.33, 68.33, 68.83 (options A–C use 68.44/69.29/68.94/68.14/68.29), so the answer is No Answer.

Q35 Same table: average marks per student in Economics and Physics respectively. Key looks wrong

Official key: A —

84, 67

Average percentage across the six students:

  • Economics: , i.e. marks.
  • Physics: , i.e. marks.

So the averages are Economics 67, Physics 84. Option A has these two values, but lists Physics first (84, 67), the reverse of the order the question asks for.

Option D (56, 70) gives the average *percentages* (55.83 rounded, and 70) in the asked order, not marks out of 120. Options B and C match neither reading.

The official key takes A, i.e. the correct values with the order ignored.

Where we differ:

Correct averages are Economics 67 and Physics 84 marks; option A lists them in reverse order (84, 67), and option D (56, 70) matches the average percentages in the asked order. Key A kept.

Q36 Same table: how many and which students scored more than 65% overall.

Answer: A —

3; A, B, C

Overall percentages (simple average of the six values):

  • A , B , C
  • D , E , F

Only A, B and C exceed 65%, so 3 students. Option D wrongly includes D (63.33%), and options B and C leave out students who qualify.

Q37 Same table: subject with the highest overall percentage and its value.

Answer: A —

Biology, 72%

Average across the six students for each subject:

  • Physics
  • Biology
  • Maths
  • Geology
  • Economics
  • English

The highest is Biology, 72%. Options C and D state the wrong figures for Maths (67.67%) and English (66.67%). Physics really is 70% but is not the highest.

Q38 Pie chart of brand shares (A 45%, B 15%, C 10%, D 8%, E 22%): A up 50%, E up 10%; total sales growth?

Answer: C —

24.70%

Take 2005 total sales as 100.

  • A: (gain 22.5)
  • E: (gain 2.2)
  • Others unchanged.

Total gain on a base of 100, i.e. growth of 24.70%.

Q39 Same changes; total 2006 sales 2,16,000. Approximate sale of A in 2005.

Answer: C —

77,947

From Q38, 2006 total (2005 total).

A's 2005 sale of this .

Q40 Pie chart: B up 10%, A down 10%, others unchanged; percentage change in total sales.

Answer: B —

Decrease by 3%

On a base of 100:

  • B:
  • A:

Net change , i.e. a decrease of 3%.

Q41 Race of five: D faster than E, slower than B; C slower than E but not slowest. Who was fastest?

Answer: C —

B

From the clues: (in speed).

C is not the slowest, so someone is slower than C, and the only one left is A: .

B is the fastest. A is the slowest, and C and D are in the middle.

Q42 Letter analogy BJMS : EMPV :: AWPL : ?

Answer: C —

DZSO

Each letter moves forward 3 places: B→E, J→M, M→P, S→V.

Apply the same to AWPL: A→D, W→Z, P→S, L→O, giving DZSO.

The other options break the +3 rule, e.g. DYRO has W→Y (+2).

Q43 Toll plaza table (buses, trucks, cars by week): week with second-highest total vehicles.

Answer: C —

I

Weekly totals (in hundreds):

  • I:
  • II:
  • III:
  • IV:

The highest is week IV and the second highest is week I.

Q44 Toll plaza table: average number of buses per week.

Answer: D —

2440

Q45 CAT is coded 6423; code for LION.

Answer: A —

15121817

Letter positions: C=3, A=1, T=20. Adding 3 to each gives 6, 4, 23, i.e. 6423.

LION: L=12, I=9, O=15, N=14, and adding 3 gives 15, 12, 18, 17, i.e. 15121817.

Option B (1291514) is just LION's plain positions 12, 9, 15, 14 with no shift, option C (961211) subtracts 3 instead of adding it, and option D (14131716) follows no consistent shift.

Q46 If 2008 starts on Monday, which year has the same calendar as 2009?

Answer: A —

2015

Two years share a calendar if they start on the same weekday and are both leap or both non-leap.

2008 is a leap year (366 days, 2 odd days), so 2009 starts on Thursday. 2009 is non-leap.

Odd days year by year: 2009 (1), 2010 (1), 2011 (1), 2012 (2, leap), 2013 (1), 2014 (1). Total , so 2015 starts on Thursday too and is non-leap.

The other options fail: 2011 starts on Saturday, 2013 on Tuesday, and 2016 is a leap year.

Q47 120 km highway XY: car A detours off the highway and returns; car B runs 35 km from Y. Distance between them.

Answer: D —

25 Km

Car A: 30 km along the highway, a right turn and 15 km away from the highway, a left turn and 30 km parallel to it, then 15 km back to the highway.

A's progress along the highway km from X.

Car B is 35 km from Y, i.e. km from X.

Distance 25 km.

Q48 Six people at a hexagonal table facing centre; seating clues given; where does Q sit?

Answer: C —

Between U and R

Number the seats 1–6 in order so that for a person facing the centre, 'right' is the next seat (+1) and 'left' is the previous seat (−1).

  • Put P at 1, so U (opposite) is at 4.
  • P is immediately left of R, so R's left neighbour is P, which puts R at 2.
  • S is immediately right of U, so S is at 5.
  • T is exactly between P (1) and S (5), so T is at 6.
  • Q takes the remaining seat, 3.

Q (seat 3) sits between R (2) and U (4).

Checking the other options: R is opposite S, not Q. U, not Q, is opposite P. P's immediate left is T.

Q49 Missing term: 10, 11, 13, 17, 25, 31, 33, ?

Answer: D —

37

Differences:

These are the units digits of successive powers of 2: .

The next difference is 4, so the term is 37.

Q50 Unscramble EIWNTR, LCUOD, UMRSME, PIGRSN and pick the odd one out.

Answer: B —

LCUOD

  • EIWNTR = WINTER
  • LCUOD = CLOUD
  • UMRSME = SUMMER
  • PIGRSN = SPRING

Winter, summer and spring are seasons; CLOUD is not. It is also the only 5-letter word among 6-letter ones.

Q51 Next term: 15, 18, 17, 21, 20, 25, 24, 30, 29, ?

Answer: B —

36

The pattern alternates :

36

Q52 Next term: 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?

Answer: A —

132

, so the next term is 132.

(Equivalently, the differences 10, 18, 26, 34 grow by 8, so the next difference is 42 and .)

Q53 Match clock-hand angles (105°, 45°, 127.5°, 187.5°) with times (7:15, 9:15, 4:30, 2:30).

Answer: A —

A]- (IV),B]-(III),C]-(I),D]-(II)

Angle between the hands at : is .

  • (I) 7:15: , so C–I
  • (II) 9:15: (the reflex angle; the smaller angle is ), so D–II
  • (III) 4:30: , so B–III
  • (IV) 2:30: , so A–IV

A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II is option A. Every other option pairs at least A or C wrongly.

Q54 Clock at 3:00 pm; time when the hour hand has moved 135°.

Answer: B —

7:30

The hour hand moves per hour, so takes hours.

3:00 + 4 h 30 min = 7:30.

Q55 Boy runs 150 m south, left 300 m, left 350 m, right 50 m to the stadium; direction of stadium from house.

Answer: D —

North-East

Take the house as , with east as and north as .

  • 150 m south:
  • Facing south, left is east; 300 m:
  • Facing east, left is north; 350 m:
  • Facing north, right is east; 50 m:

The stadium is 350 m east and 200 m north of the house, i.e. North-East.

Q56 Six books stacked: Electronics just above Chemistry, Statistics between Commerce and Environmental Science, Botany between Electronics and Commerce. Top book?

Answer: C —

Environmental Science

Read 'between' as immediately between, as these stacking puzzles intend.

  • Electronics is directly above Chemistry.
  • Botany sits between Electronics and Commerce. It cannot be below Electronics, because Chemistry is there, so the order upward is Chemistry, Electronics, Botany, Commerce.
  • Statistics sits between Commerce and Environmental Science, so it goes above Commerce, with Environmental Science above it.

Bottom to top: Chemistry, Electronics, Botany, Commerce, Statistics, Environmental Science. That uses all six books, so Environmental Science is at the top.

Q57 Odd one out among jumbled words PWSORAR, GPNEIO, TPORAR, JRABLNI.

Answer: D —

JRABLNI

  • PWSORAR = SPARROW (bird)
  • GPNEIO = PIGEON (bird)
  • TPORAR = PARROT (bird)
  • JRABLNI = BRINJAL (vegetable)

BRINJAL is the only one that is not a bird.

Q58 HE is coded 418 and GO is 240; code for SHE.

Answer: D —

3344

Use reverse alphabet positions (A=26, …, Z=1) and multiply them.

  • H=19, E=22: ✓
  • G=20, O=12: ✓

SHE: S=8, H=19, E=22, so 3344.

Q59 Four persons, four games, four cities with five clues; what does the Ahmedabad person play?

Answer: C —

Cricket

  • P is from Bombay, and the Tennis player is from Jaipur, so P does not play Tennis. From clue 4, P plays Chess.
  • Q plays Football or Chess, and Chess is taken, so Q plays Football.
  • R and S share Tennis and Cricket. S does not play Cricket, so S plays Tennis (and is from Jaipur) and R plays Cricket.
  • The Cricket player is not from Calcutta, and Bombay and Jaipur are taken, so R is from Ahmedabad. Q is from Calcutta.

The Ahmedabad person (R) plays Cricket.

Q60 Eight people around a circle facing centre, with seating clues; which pair sits between G and A?

Answer: A —

C, F

Number the seats 0–7 in order so that for someone facing the centre, 'right' is and 'left' is .

  • F = 0. E is 4th to the right of F, so E = 4.
  • E is 2nd to the left of A, so and A = 6.
  • D is not next to A, so D ≠ 5, 7. D is in {1, 2, 3}.
  • B is 3rd to the right of D: D = 1 would put B on E's seat (4), and D = 3 would put B on A's seat (6). So D = 2 and B = 5.
  • D is not next to C, so C ≠ 1, 3. Hence C = 7.
  • G and H take 1 and 3. F never sits next to H, so H ≠ 1. Hence H = 3 and G = 1.

The circle is F0, G1, D2, H3, E4, B5, A6, C7. Going from G (1) to A (6) the short way passes seats 0 and 7, i.e. C and F.

Options C and D name people on the longer arc along with others (D, H, E, B), and option B includes A itself.

Q61 Ecology : Environment :: Histology : ?

Answer: C —

Tissues

Ecology is the study of organisms in relation to their environment. Histology is the study of tissues.

History is a different discipline, hormones are studied in endocrinology, and fossils in palaeontology.

Q62 Ram and Sham are brothers; Sita and Gita sisters; Ram's son is Gita's brother. How is Sham related to Sita?

Answer: C —

Sham is uncle of Sita

Ram's son is Gita's real brother, so Gita (and her real sister Sita) are Ram's daughters.

Sham is Ram's brother, so he is Sita's (paternal) uncle. He cannot be her brother, father or grandfather.

Q63 Which follows from 'If the game is interesting, then I play it'?

Answer: D —

I did not play a game implies that the game was not interesting.

The statement has the form . Its logically equivalent contrapositive is : 'I did not play, so the game was not interesting.' That is option D.

  • A is the converse (), which does not follow.
  • B and C describe an interesting game not being played, which contradicts the statement.
Q64 Which word cannot be formed from the letters of CONSULTATION?

Answer: D —

SALUTE

CONSULTATION contains C, O×2, N×2, S, U, L, T×2, A, I.

  • NATION (N×2, A, T, I, O) can be formed.
  • STATION (S, T×2, A, I, O, N) can be formed.
  • SOLUTION (S, O×2, L, U, T, I, N) can be formed.
  • SALUTE needs an E, which CONSULTATION does not have.
Q65 Birthday between 14th–21st Oct (Sham) and 15th–20th Oct (Shalini), on a Wednesday, with 2 Oct a Monday. Which date?

Answer: C —

18th October

2 October is a Monday, so the Wednesdays are 4, 11, 18 and 25 October.

Strictly between 14th and 21st means 15–20, and strictly between 15th and 20th means 16–19. The only Wednesday in both ranges is 18th October.

16th, 17th and 19th are Monday, Tuesday and Thursday.

Q66 Circle divided into six sectors with numbers 4, 7, 12, 21, 38 and ?; find the missing number.

Answer: C —

71

Going clockwise from 4:

Each term is twice the previous minus an increasing number:

71.

(Equivalently, the differences are .)

Verbal Ability

Q67 Indirect narration of: She said to him, "Please wait here till I return."

Answer: B —

She requested him to wait there till she returned.

A polite imperative ('Please …') is reported with requested + object + to-infinitive. 'Here' becomes there, and the present 'return' is back-shifted to the past, returned.

  • A changes 'him' to 'her', the wrong object.
  • C keeps the present tense 'returns' after a past reporting verb.
  • D uses the present 'requests' but then a past perfect, an inconsistent mix.
Q68 Passage (monkeys and fireflies): the monkeys were running through the forest because they ___. More than one answer

Official key: B —

liked running about in dark

The passage says the monkeys had no warm home on a cold, stormy night and were looking everywhere for shelter. That supports option C, 'were in search of a warm shelter'.

  • A (food) and D (killing birds) are never mentioned as their reason.
  • B, 'liked running about in dark', has no support. The monkeys are described as worried, not enjoying themselves.

This question is word-for-word identical to Q69, where the official key gives C. The key's B for Q68 looks like a key error. It is kept here as printed.

Why it is arguable:

Passage supports C (search for warm shelter); Q69 is the identical question and is keyed C. Option B has no textual support. Key B kept.

Q69 Passage (monkeys and fireflies): the monkeys were running through the forest because they ___.

Answer: C —

were in search of a warm shelter

The passage states the monkeys had no warm home in the cold and 'looked everywhere for shelter'. They even went towards what they thought was fire to warm themselves. So they were searching for a warm shelter.

Food (A) is never mentioned. Nothing suggests they enjoyed running in the dark (B). Their attack on the bird came later, out of anger, and was not why they were running (D).

Q70 Passage: the bird tried to help the monkeys because she ___.

Answer: B —

was kind and felt sorry for them

The passage says one bird 'had a kind heart' and 'felt sorry for the monkeys', so B gives its motive directly.

  • A describes what the monkeys *called* her advice, not her reason for giving it.
  • C and D have no support; she only wanted to spare them a futile chase.
Q71 Passage moral: what happens when you try to help a fool?

Answer: C —

You may invite danger for yourself.

The bird's well-meant advice made the angry monkey pull it out of its nest. Its final lament shows that helping a fool brought harm on the helper, so C fits.

  • A and B are the opposite of what happened (no thanks, no friendship).
  • D is wrong because the harm fell on the helper, not on the fool.
Q72 Pick the grammatically correct question about who replaced an injured player.

Answer: D —

Who replaced the player after she was injured?

Both events are completed past actions in sequence, and 'after' already marks the order, so the simple past in both clauses is correct: 'Who replaced the player after she was injured?'

  • A puts the *later* action in the past perfect ('had replaced'), which reverses the time logic.
  • B uses 'she were', a subject–verb agreement error.
  • C uses the past continuous 'was replacing' for a single completed act, which is unidiomatic.
Q73 Spot the error: (A) Writing the letter, (B) is often cheaper, (C) than telephoning.

Answer: A —

A

The sentence is a general comparison between two ways of communicating. A general statement needs a generic noun phrase, 'Writing a letter' (or 'Writing letters'). The definite article 'the letter' wrongly points to one particular letter.

Parts B ('is often cheaper': singular verb with a gerund subject) and C ('than telephoning': parallel gerund) are correct. So the error is in part A.

Q74 Antonym of CONSIDERATE.

Answer: D —

Indifferent

Considerate means thoughtful about and caring for the feelings and needs of others. Its opposite is lacking concern for others, i.e. indifferent (uncaring, unconcerned).

  • Comprehensive means all-inclusive, which is unrelated.
  • Atrocious means extremely bad or wicked, and malignant means harmful or evil. Both describe cruelty or harm, not the absence of care, so neither is the direct opposite.
Q75 Indirect narration of: He said, "Let us wait for the award."

Answer: B —

He proposed that they should wait for the award.

'Let us …' expresses a proposal that includes the speaker, so it is reported as proposed/suggested that they should + verb.

  • A ('proposed him') is ungrammatical and drops the speaker from the group.
  • C ('agreed … with him') changes the meaning from a proposal to agreement.
  • D ('proposed me that I') is ungrammatical and wrongly narrows the group to the listener.
Q76 Pick the correctly spelt word: disastar, documantation, daviation, dormitory.

Answer: D —

dormitory

Dormitory is spelt correctly. The correct forms of the others are disaster, documentation and deviation.

Q77 Fill in: 'Time and tide ___ for none.'

Answer: B —

wait

The proverb is 'Time and tide wait for none'. Two subjects joined by 'and' take a plural verb, and a general truth takes the simple present. So the answer is 'wait'.

'Waits' is singular, 'waiting' is not a finite verb, and 'had waited' is the wrong tense for a timeless truth.

Q78 Synonym of 'reproach'.

Answer: A —

reprimand

Reproach means to express disapproval or disappointment to someone, i.e. to rebuke or reprimand.

'Appreciate' is nearly the opposite, and 'understand' is unrelated. 'To approach again' is a false guess from the word's parts ('re-' + 'approach').

Q79 Meaning of 'expedite' from context: attorney wanted to expedite the process because her client was impatient.

Answer: A —

accelerate

An impatient client wants things done faster, so expedite means to speed up, i.e. accelerate.

Evaluating, reversing or justifying the process would not answer the client's impatience.

Q80 Order the parts: around the town / when I was young / delivering food to customers / shopkeepers would cycle.

Answer: B —

QSPR

'When I was young, (Q) shopkeepers would cycle (S) around the town (P) delivering food to customers (R).'

The time clause Q opens the sentence and needs the main clause S with its subject and verb. P completes 'cycle' with a place, and the participle phrase R describes the purpose. The other orders leave S or R without a proper link (e.g. RSPQ starts with a dangling participle).

Q81 Pick the correct sentence about deciding not to perform due to ill health.

Answer: B —

Due to his ill health, he decided not to perform on the stage.

The standard negative infinitive is not to + verb: 'decided not to perform'.

  • A splits the infinitive ('to not perform'), which is avoided in formal usage.
  • C wrongly uses 'did not decided' (after 'did' the base form 'decide' is needed), and it also changes the meaning.
  • D uses the present 'decide' with a singular subject in a past context.
Q82 Order the parts: an extra person / this card entitles / with you free / you to take.

Answer: A —

QSPR

'This card entitles (Q) you to take (S) an extra person (P) with you free (R).'

'Entitles' needs an object plus a to-infinitive ('entitles you to take'), 'take' needs its object 'an extra person', and 'with you free' completes the idea. No other order gives a grammatical sentence.

Q83 Fill in: 'While going to Chandigarh, our car broke ___ midway.'

Answer: C —

down

Break down is the phrasal verb for a vehicle or machine that stops working.

'Break apart' means to split into pieces, 'break up' means to end a relationship or disperse, and 'break into' means to enter by force. None of these fits a car failing on a journey.

Q84 Meaning of the idiom 'put her foot down' in: asked to reconsider, she put her foot down.

Answer: D —

refused to yield

To put one's foot down is to take a firm stand and refuse to change, i.e. refused to yield.

The context confirms it: she was asked to reconsider, and she stood firm. Agreeing to consider (A), ignoring (B) or listening carefully (C) do not convey that firmness.

Q85 Passive voice of: He will finish the work in a fortnight.

Answer: D —

The work will be finished by him in a fortnight.

In the future simple, will finish becomes will be finished in the passive. The object 'the work' becomes the subject, and the agent follows as 'by him'.

  • A and B wrongly change the tense to 'would' and 'in a fortnight' to 'that fortnight' (A also keeps 'he' as the subject).
  • C changes the tense to the past ('was finished').
Q86 Synonym of PALPABLE.

Answer: B —

perceivable

Palpable means able to be touched or felt, and so clearly noticeable. The closest synonym is perceivable (perceptible), which covers perception by any sense.

'Visible' and 'audible' are limited to single senses (sight, hearing), and 'presentable' is unrelated.

Q87 Paragraph on critical reading as a demanding, active process: which statement best supports its point?

Answer: D —

critical reading requires thoughtful and careful attention.

The paragraph says critical reading is demanding: slow down, read with a pencil, mark reactions and questions, be an active participant. That adds up to thoughtful, careful attention (D).

  • A adds 'dull', which the author never says.
  • B narrows the point to questioning truth, which is only one of the activities mentioned.
  • C plays on the word 'critical' ('critical times'), which is unrelated to the paragraph.
Q88 Meaning of 'gullible' from context: Mr. Powers believed even outlandish excuses from insincere employees.

Answer: B —

naive

Someone who believes even the most outlandish excuses is easily deceived, i.e. naive.

'Intelligent' and 'critical' are the opposite of what the context shows. 'Dishonest' describes the employees, not Mr. Powers.

Q89 Fill in: 'There are more things in heaven and earth ___ are dreamt of in our philosophy.'

Answer: C —

than

A comparison with 'more … ' is completed by than, as in Shakespeare's line from *Hamlet*.

'Then' (time), 'thin' (not a connector) and 'where' do not complete a comparison.

Q90 Active voice of: Why was such a letter written by your father?

Answer: C —

Why did your father write such a letter?

The passive 'was … written' is simple past, so the active question uses did + base verb: 'Why did your father write such a letter?'

  • A shifts the tense to the past perfect.
  • B wrongly uses 'did … wrote' (after 'did' the base form is needed).
  • D shifts to the past continuous.
Q91 Synonym of FAMISHED.

Answer: B —

Hungry

Famished means extremely hungry.

'Agricultural' may tempt through its association with food and famine, but it is unrelated in meaning. 'Prestigious' and 'feasible' are also unrelated.

Q92 Synonym of OSTENSIBLE.

Answer: C —

apparent

Ostensible means stated or appearing to be true but not necessarily so, i.e. apparent (as in 'the ostensible reason').

'Strong', 'desirable' and 'fateful' do not carry the sense of outward appearance.

Q93 Fill in: 'He put ___ his departure for a week.'

Answer: B —

off

Put off means to postpone, which fits delaying a departure 'for a week'.

'Put down' means to suppress or write down, and 'put on' means to wear or stage something. 'Put of' is not a phrasal verb.

Q94 Fill in: 'Read ___; nor to believe; but to weigh and consider.'

Answer: D —

not to contradict

This is from Francis Bacon's *Of Studies*: read not to contradict, nor to believe, but to weigh and consider. The parallel structure 'not to …; nor to …; but to …' needs the negative infinitive not to + verb.

  • A splits the infinitive ('to not').
  • B scrambles the word order.
  • C uses the adjective 'contradictory' where a verb is needed.
Q95 Synonym of 'Communicable'.

Answer: B —

Contagious

Communicable (as in a communicable disease) means able to be passed from one person to another, i.e. contagious.

'Communication' and 'commutation' are nouns that only look similar. 'Understandable' confuses communicable with 'comprehensible'.

Q96 Pick the correctly spelt word: forms of 'unequivocally'.

Answer: B —

unequivocally

The correct spelling is un-equi-voc-al-ly: 'unequivocal' + '-ly' keeps both l's.

Option A drops one l, C starts with 'en-', and D replaces 'equi' with 'iqui'.

Q97 Pick the correct sentence about not liking to get up early.

Answer: C —

She doesn't like to get up early.

After the auxiliary 'doesn't' the main verb takes its base form (like), and after 'to' the infinitive is also base form (get).

  • A has 'to gets'.
  • B and D have 'doesn't likes'.
Q98 Paragraph on mediation versus litigation: which idea does it best support?

Answer: D —

Mediation can be an effective way to resolve conflicts.

The author presents mediation as an efficient, successful, cheaper alternative that seeks mutually acceptable solutions. The hedged claim in D, that it can be effective, matches.

  • A (society relies too much on litigation) is not discussed.
  • B makes claims about litigation's limits beyond what is stated.
  • C ('the best way') overstates: the author says litigation is not *always* the best, not that mediation always is.
Q99 Pick the correct sentence using 'Hardly had … got over' about a function and a dispersing crowd.

Answer: A —

Hardly had the function got over, the crowd dispersed.

'Hardly' at the start of a sentence requires inversion with the past perfect: Hardly had + subject + past participle. Option A has this ('Hardly had the function got over').

  • B uses 'have … getting', which is ungrammatical.
  • C garbles both the meaning and the grammar ('was not got over', 'the crowd were').
  • D has no subject after 'had' and uses the present 'disperse'.

Strictly, the standard pattern also needs when before the second clause ('… got over when the crowd dispersed'). A is the only option with the correct inverted structure, so it is the best choice.

Q100 Fill in: 'A bird in the hand ___ worth two in the bush.'

Answer: D —

is

The subject is the singular 'a bird', and a proverb states a timeless truth, so the simple present singular is is needed.

'Are' and 'were' are plural, and 'was' is the past tense.

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About the JIPMAT exam pattern

JIPMAT is conducted by NTA · IIM Bodh Gaya & Jammu. The format below is the standard pattern — check the official notification for the current year's exact rules before you sit the exam.

SectionsQuantitative Aptitude · Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning · Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension
Questions33 + 33 + 34 = 100
Duration150 minutes
Marking+4 / −1
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