IPMAT Rohtak 2019 · Question Paper & Solutions

IIM Rohtak

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Official question paper · For practice and educational use only. On mobile, the PDF may open in your default reader.

Worked solutions — IPMAT Rohtak 2019

Every question, solved step by step. Each answer is checked against the official key printed with the paper — 104 of 120 solutions reach it. Try each question before opening it.

5 answers correct the official key, where the working settles it. The key's own answer is shown alongside each one.

The other 11 questions are flagged. The official key is always shown; the flag says what the problem is.

  • 1 misprint in paper — the paper has a printing error; the official key is right once it is corrected
  • 2 key looks wrong — our working reaches a different answer from the official key
  • 7 more than one answer — more than one answer is defensible
  • 1 no option is correct — the correct answer is not among the printed options

Quantitative Ability

Q1 Boat charts: upstream time on Wednesday is 6/7 of Monday's downstream time; Monday still-water speed 15 km/h. Find Wednesday's still-water speed.

Answer: D —

None of these

Reading the charts. Both pies are printed with the title "downstream", but the questions only work if the 4800 km pie is upstream and the 2400 km pie is downstream (Q2 confirms this).

  • Upstream (4800 km): Sun 960, Mon 768, Tue 864, Wed 576, Thu 480, Fri 672, Sat 480
  • Downstream (2400 km): Sun 288, Mon 336, Tue 432, Wed 264, Thu 240, Fri 408, Sat 432
  • Stream speed: Mon 5, Tue 2, Wed 6, Fri 1, Sun 3 (Thu, Sat not given)

Monday downstream: h.

Wednesday upstream time h, so upstream speed km/h.

Still-water speed on Wednesday km/h, which is not among 52, 62, 42. (Reading the pies the other way round gives about 14 km/h, also not an option.)

Answer: None of these.

Q2 Boat charts: Monday's upstream time exceeds its downstream time by 27 1/5 hours. Find Monday's still-water speed.

Answer: A —

25 kmph

Reading the charts. Both pies are printed with the title "downstream", but the questions only work if the 4800 km pie is upstream and the 2400 km pie is downstream (Q2 confirms this).

  • Upstream (4800 km): Sun 960, Mon 768, Tue 864, Wed 576, Thu 480, Fri 672, Sat 480
  • Downstream (2400 km): Sun 288, Mon 336, Tue 432, Wed 264, Thu 240, Fri 408, Sat 432
  • Stream speed: Mon 5, Tue 2, Wed 6, Fri 1, Sun 3 (Thu, Sat not given)

Let still-water speed be . With stream 5 km/h:

Try : ✓.

The left side decreases as grows, so the root is unique (check : ).

Answer: 25 km/h.

Q3 Boat charts: Saturday still-water 27 km/h, Wednesday 66 2/3% more; Wednesday upstream time is '16 1/3' times Saturday downstream time. Find Saturday's stream speed. Misprint in paper

Official key: C —

9

Reading the charts. Both pies are printed with the title "downstream", but the questions only work if the 4800 km pie is upstream and the 2400 km pie is downstream (Q2 confirms this).

  • Upstream (4800 km): Sun 960, Mon 768, Tue 864, Wed 576, Thu 480, Fri 672, Sat 480
  • Downstream (2400 km): Sun 288, Mon 336, Tue 432, Wed 264, Thu 240, Fri 408, Sat 432
  • Stream speed: Mon 5, Tue 2, Wed 6, Fri 1, Sun 3 (Thu, Sat not given)

Wednesday still-water speed km/h, so upstream speed km/h.

Wednesday upstream time h.

As printed (ratio ): Saturday downstream time would be h, i.e. a downstream speed of about 478 km/h. That is impossible, and none of the options work.

Intended ratio (the fraction seems to have been misprinted as a mixed number):

Answer: 9 km/h.

Why this is flagged:

As printed, the ratio 16 1/3 gives no valid option; the key's answer 9 comes out only if the ratio is 16/13.

Q4 Boat charts: Saturday still-water 21 km/h, Sunday 28 4/7% more; Saturday upstream time is 2.5 times Sunday downstream time. Time for 125 km upstream Saturday?

Answer: D —

6 hrs 15 min

Reading the charts. Both pies are printed with the title "downstream", but the questions only work if the 4800 km pie is upstream and the 2400 km pie is downstream (Q2 confirms this).

  • Upstream (4800 km): Sun 960, Mon 768, Tue 864, Wed 576, Thu 480, Fri 672, Sat 480
  • Downstream (2400 km): Sun 288, Mon 336, Tue 432, Wed 264, Thu 240, Fri 408, Sat 432
  • Stream speed: Mon 5, Tue 2, Wed 6, Fri 1, Sun 3 (Thu, Sat not given)

Sunday still-water speed km/h, so downstream speed km/h.

Sunday downstream time h. Saturday upstream time h.

Upstream speed on Saturday km/h (so the stream is 1 km/h).

Time for 125 km h h min.

Answer: 6 hrs 15 min.

Q5 Boat charts: Friday upstream time is 30 h more than Wednesday downstream time; Friday still-water 17 km/h. Find Wednesday's upstream speed.

Answer: D —

None of these

Reading the charts. Both pies are printed with the title "downstream", but the questions only work if the 4800 km pie is upstream and the 2400 km pie is downstream (Q2 confirms this).

  • Upstream (4800 km): Sun 960, Mon 768, Tue 864, Wed 576, Thu 480, Fri 672, Sat 480
  • Downstream (2400 km): Sun 288, Mon 336, Tue 432, Wed 264, Thu 240, Fri 408, Sat 432
  • Stream speed: Mon 5, Tue 2, Wed 6, Fri 1, Sun 3 (Thu, Sat not given)

Friday upstream speed km/h, so time h.

Wednesday downstream time h, so downstream speed km/h.

Wednesday still-water speed , so upstream speed km/h. That is not among 27, 22, 20.

Answer: None of these.

Q6 X litres milk; 50 litres replaced by water three times, leaving X−122 litres milk. Find water in final mixture.

Answer: A —

122 Litre

Water is only ever swapped in for milk, so the total stays litres. Water litres.

Check (find ):

(the other root, about 17.9, is less than 50 and so invalid).

Milk left , so water ✓.

Answer: 122 litres.

Q7 Veena repays Rs 2460 after 5 months at 6% SI; Gita repays same at 7.5% SI; equal loans. After how many months did Gita repay?

Answer: B —

4 Months

Veena: .

Gita: interest months.

Answer: 4 months.

Q8 Circle K contains two touching circles L and M, each of diameter 15, spanning K's diameter. Area of shaded region?

Answer: B —

square feet

Each small circle has diameter 15, so radius . Circle K's diameter is , so its radius is .

  • Area of K
  • Area of L area of M

Shaded region (K minus L and M) .

(The two small circles together also make , so the answer is the same whichever part is shaded.)

Answer: sq ft.

Q9 Same figure: ratio of area of circle M to area of circle K?

Answer: B —

1 : 4

The radius of M () is half the radius of K (). Area scales with the square of the radius:

Directly: .

Answer: 1 : 4.

Q10 If x% of y equals z, what percentage of z is x?

Answer: C —

.

Percentage of that is:

Check: , and is of . Also ✓.

Answer: .

Q11 Train A takes 45 min more than B over 450 km; B slowed by a quarter takes 30 min more than A. A's speed?

Answer: C —

100 km/hr

The second equation is . Adding the two equations: .

Then km/h.

Check: A takes 4.5 h and B 3.75 h (45 min apart). Slowed B runs at 90 km/h and takes 5 h, 30 min more than A ✓.

Answer: 100 km/h.

Q12 Two traders both claim 20% profit, one on cost and one on selling price; same SP, profits differ by Rs 85. Find SP.

Answer: B —

Rs 2550

Let the selling price be .

  • Profit 20% on cost: cost , profit
  • Profit 20% on SP: profit

Difference: .

Answer: Rs 2550.

Q13 A 20% rise in egg price gives 2 fewer eggs for Rs 24. Present rate per dozen?

Answer: A —

Rs 28.8/dozen

Let the old price be per egg. Then .

Simplifying: . The new price is per egg.

Per dozen: .

Check: Rs 24 bought 12 eggs before and 10 now ✓.

Answer: Rs 28.8/dozen.

Q14 Find sin(13π/6).

Answer: A —

Answer: .

Q15 9 boys eat 3/5 of fruits in 2 hours; 6 boys stop. How long will the remaining boys take to finish the rest?

Answer: D —

4 hours

9 boys eat in 2 hours, so one boy eats of the fruit per hour.

Left: of the fruit, to be eaten by 3 boys at per hour.

Time hours. (The Rs 350 is irrelevant.)

Answer: 4 hours.

Q16 Min of f(x)=x²+2bx+2c² exceeds max of g(x)=−x²−2cx+b². Which condition holds?

Answer: A —

, so .

, so .

Requirement: .

Answer: .

Q17 Set of real x with x² − |x+2| + x > 0.

Answer: B —

Case : or .

Case : , which always holds.

Union: .

Check: gives (fails), gives (fails), gives (works) ✓.

Answer: .

Q18 Next term: 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 8, 2, ?

Answer: A —

1

Successive divisors are , so the next step is :

Answer: 1.

Q19 Room floor 15 × 6; base + roof area equals area of four walls. Find height.

Answer: C —

4.29 cm

Base + roof .

Four walls .

.

Answer: 4.29 cm.

Q20 Third plus ninth term of an AP is 8. Sum of first 11 terms?

Answer: A —

44

.

.

Answer: 44.

Q21 A = 2^65, B = 2^64 + 2^63 + … + 2^0. Which is true?

Answer: D —

A is larger than B by 1

is a geometric series: .

So .

Check on a small case: and ✓.

Answer: A is larger than B by 1.

Q22 A line from the centre to the circumference of a circle is called? Key corrected

Answer: B —

radius

Official key: A — diameter

A segment from the centre to any point on the circle is, by definition, a radius (option B) — the correct answer.

A diameter is a chord through the centre, joining two points on the circle, and is twice the radius. Area is not a line, and midpoint is a point.

The official key gives A (diameter), which contradicts the definition.

Why we differ from the key:

A segment from the centre to a point on the circle is a radius, by definition; a diameter joins two points on the circle through the centre and is twice as long. The official key gives diameter, which contradicts the definition.

Q23 Bag: 4 blue, 5 white, 6 green. Two drawn. Probability exactly one is white?

Answer: A —

Total ways: .

Exactly one white: .

.

Check by the complement: and , so ✓.

Answer: .

Q24 P fills in 20 h, Q in 25 h, R empties in 30 h; all open 10 h, then R closed. Fill time?

Answer: B —

hrs

All three together: per hour.

After 10 h the tank is full, leaving .

P and Q together: per hour, so they need h more.

Total time h (the key counts the total time).

Answer: hrs.

Q25 a:b = 2:3, b:c = 5:2, c:d = 1:4. Find a:b:c.

Answer: C —

10 : 15 : 6

Make common (LCM of 3 and 5 is 15): and .

So . The ratio isn't needed.

Answer: 10 : 15 : 6.

Q26 Rs 495 in Re 1, 50p and 25p coins in count ratio 1:8:16. Number of 50p coins?

Answer: C —

440

Let the counts be .

Value: .

50 paise coins .

Answer: 440.

Q27 What decimal of an hour is a second? Key corrected

Answer: A —

.00028

Official key: B — .00027

second hour

  • Rounded to five decimal places this is (option A) — the correct answer.
  • Truncated it is (option B), which is what the official key gives.

The exact value, , is closer to , so A is right.

Why we differ from the key:

1/3600 = 0.000277…, which rounds to .00028 (option A). The official key gives .00027, the truncated value.

Q28 Vulgar fraction for 0.0056?

Answer: C —

Check: ✓.

Answer: .

Q29 One-fifth of a number equals 5/8 of another; first number plus 35 is four times the second. Find the second.

Answer: C —

40

Let the numbers be and . From we get .

.

Check: . Then , and ✓.

Answer: 40.

Q30 With * = +, / = −, + = ×, − = ÷, evaluate 43 * 561 + 500 − 100 / 10.

Answer: D —

2838

After swapping the symbols: .

Working through: , then , so .

Answer: 2838.

Q31 Circle inscribed in equilateral triangle of side 24 cm. Area of the triangle outside the circle?

Answer: A —

cm²

Triangle area .

Inradius , so circle area .

Remaining area cm².

Answer: cm².

Q32 A clock strikes 4 in 9 seconds. Time to strike 12 at the same rate?

Answer: A —

33 seconds

4 strikes have 3 gaps, so each gap s.

12 strikes have 11 gaps: s.

Answer: 33 seconds.

Q33 John is 1/4 of father's age 2 years ago; father will be twice Raman's age in 10 years; Raman turned 12 two years ago.

Answer: C —

9 years

Raman is now, so he will be in 10 years.

Father in 10 years , so father now and two years ago .

John .

Answer: 9 years.

Q34 Raj invests Rs 76000; Monty later invests Rs 57000; year-end profit ratio 2:1. After how many months did Monty join?

Answer: A —

4 Months

Let Monty stay in for months.

.

Answer: 4 months.

Q35 P does twice Q's daily work, Q thrice R's; together 30 days. P alone?

Answer: D —

50 days

Let R's rate be . Then Q and P , so together .

P's rate , so P alone takes 50 days.

Check: ✓.

Q36 Boatman: 2 km upstream in 1 h, 1 km downstream in 10 min. Time for 5 km in still water?

Answer: C —

1 hr 15 min

Upstream speed km/h. Downstream speed km in h km/h.

Still-water speed km/h.

Time for 5 km h h min.

Answer: 1 hr 15 min.

Q37 Simplify 25^(2.7) × 5^(4.2) ÷ 5^(5.4).

Answer: D —

, so the expression is .

Answer: .

Q38 Simplify 18800 / 470 / 20.

Answer: B —

2

Work left to right: , then .

Answer: 2.

Q39 HCF of 2/3, 4/6, 8/27.

Answer: A —

First reduce to lowest terms: .

Check: and , both whole numbers. The next candidate up, , fails because .

Answer: .

Q40 log 2, log(2^x − 1), log(2^x + 3) are in AP. Find x.

Answer: B —

For an AP, , so .

Put : or .

Since , and .

Check: the terms are , which are in AP ✓.

Answer: .

Logical Reasoning

Q41 Paper net X (cross of five squares with triangular flaps) is folded into a box; which views (1)-(4) match it? More than one answer

Official key: A —

1 and 2 only

Reading the net. The cross has five squares: a centre square and four side panels. Each side panel ends in a triangular flap: top flap black, right flap black, bottom flap white, left flap white. The bottom panel carries a dot. When folded, the four flaps meet to form the sixth face, so the black flaps belong to two neighbouring panels (top and right).

Testing the views (net drawn on the outside):

  • (3): the triangular face is entirely white, but two of its four triangles must be black ✗.
  • (4): the whole triangular face is black, but only two of its triangles are black ✗.
  • (2): left half black, right half white, dot on the right wall. This fits: right wall = dot panel (bottom), left wall = right panel. Their flaps give black (right + top) on one side and white (bottom + left) on the other ✓.
  • (1): shows a black triangle on a side wall, but no side panel in the net has shading ✗.

On this analysis only (2) matches, which isn't one of the choices. The key gives "1 and 2 only".

Why it is arguable:

Folding the net consistently, view (1) needs shading on a side panel that the net lacks; only view (2) fits, so the key's '1 and 2' cannot be confirmed.

Q42 Raju says of Manju: 'The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife.' How is Manju related to Raju?

Answer: D —

Sister of father-in-law

  • The son of Manju's only brother is the brother of Raju's wife.
  • So Raju's wife is a child of Manju's brother, which makes Manju's brother Raju's father-in-law.
  • Manju is therefore the sister of Raju's father-in-law.

Mother-in-law would be the brother's wife, not his sister.

Answer: Sister of father-in-law.

Q43 Analogy: Arrows : Quiver

Answer: B —

Money: Bank

A quiver is the container where arrows are kept. Likewise, money is kept in a bank.

  • A coin is *made* at a mint, not stored there.
  • Fear causes trembling (cause and effect).
  • Music is made of sound (component).

Answer: Money : Bank.

Q44 Analogy: Embarrass : Humiliate

Answer: D —

Annoy: Exasperate

*Humiliate* is a stronger degree of *embarrass*. Likewise, *exasperate* is a stronger degree of *annoy*.

  • Enquire : Ask are near-synonyms of the same degree.
  • Embezzle : Peculate are exact synonyms.
  • Gamble : Investment are different activities, not a difference in degree.

Answer: Annoy : Exasperate.

Q45 No tree is a flower; some trees are fruits. Conclusions: I fruits that are trees aren't flowers; II no fruit is a flower.

Answer: A —

Only conclusion I follows

  • I: fruits that are trees are trees, and no tree is a flower. So I follows.
  • II: fruits that are *not* trees could still be flowers. Nothing rules that out, so II does not follow.

Answer: Only conclusion I follows.

Q46 Lady's finger tastier than cabbage; cauliflower tastier than lady's finger; cabbage not tastier than peas. Which follows?

Answer: D —

Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage

Chain: Cauliflower > Lady's finger > Cabbage, and Peas ≥ Cabbage.

  • The chain directly gives Cauliflower > Cabbage.
  • Peas are only known to be at least as tasty as cabbage. Their place relative to lady's finger or cauliflower is unknown, so A, B and C cannot be concluded.

Answer: Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.

Q47 Some A are B; some C are A. Conclusions: I some C are B; II some B are A.

Answer: B —

Only conclusion II follows

  • II: "Some A are B" converts directly to "Some B are A", so II follows.
  • I: the C's that are A need not be the A's that are B. Two particular premises give no conclusion, so I does not follow.

Answer: Only conclusion II follows.

Q48 Seating puzzle: who sits third to the left of the person second to the left of the Purple-lover? More than one answer

Official key: C —

The person who likes Blue colour

Arrangement that matches the key. Seats 1–8 run west to east. A north-facing person's left is west; a south-facing person's left is east.

  • Seat 1: R, faces south, White
  • Seat 2: U, faces north, Red
  • Seat 3: P, faces south, Yellow
  • Seat 4: Q, faces south, Orange
  • Seat 5: V, faces south, Black
  • Seat 6: vacant
  • Seat 7: T, faces north, Purple
  • Seat 8: S, faces north, Blue

Checks:
- T (7) and P (3) have 3 seats between them, and neither is at an end.
- Persons between U and Q: 1 (P). Between Q and S: 2 (V, T).
- V's only neighbour is Q (seat 4), which is 3rd to the left of R (seat 1, facing south).
- U and T face north; Q faces south.
- Orange (Q) is 3rd to the left of T. T likes Purple.
- The ends, R and S, face opposite ways.
- Seats between Blue (8) and Yellow (3): 4. Persons between Red (2) and Black (5): 2. So .
- White (R) is not next to the vacant seat, and Red (U) sits beside White.
- Yellow (P) faces south, opposite to T.
- The people beside the vacant seat, V and T, face the same way as their other neighbours, Q and S.

Caution: a systematic check shows the printed conditions also allow many other arrangements, so the puzzle does not force this one.

Solving. Purple is T (seat 7, facing north), so T's left is toward seat 1. Second to the left of T is seat 5, V.

V faces south, so V's left is toward seat 8. Third to the left of V is seat 8, S, who likes Blue.

Why it is arguable:

Printed conditions admit many valid seatings (an exhaustive search found dozens); the key matches arrangement R U P Q V _ T S, but the answer isn't uniquely forced.

Q49 Seating puzzle: how many persons sit between the Red-lover and the vacant seat? More than one answer

Official key: C —

Three

Arrangement that matches the key. Seats 1–8 run west to east. A north-facing person's left is west; a south-facing person's left is east.

  • Seat 1: R, faces south, White
  • Seat 2: U, faces north, Red
  • Seat 3: P, faces south, Yellow
  • Seat 4: Q, faces south, Orange
  • Seat 5: V, faces south, Black
  • Seat 6: vacant
  • Seat 7: T, faces north, Purple
  • Seat 8: S, faces north, Blue

Checks:
- T (7) and P (3) have 3 seats between them, and neither is at an end.
- Persons between U and Q: 1 (P). Between Q and S: 2 (V, T).
- V's only neighbour is Q (seat 4), which is 3rd to the left of R (seat 1, facing south).
- U and T face north; Q faces south.
- Orange (Q) is 3rd to the left of T. T likes Purple.
- The ends, R and S, face opposite ways.
- Seats between Blue (8) and Yellow (3): 4. Persons between Red (2) and Black (5): 2. So .
- White (R) is not next to the vacant seat, and Red (U) sits beside White.
- Yellow (P) faces south, opposite to T.
- The people beside the vacant seat, V and T, face the same way as their other neighbours, Q and S.

Caution: a systematic check shows the printed conditions also allow many other arrangements, so the puzzle does not force this one.

Solving. Red is U (seat 2) and the vacant seat is 6. Between them sit P, Q and V: three persons.

Why it is arguable:

Printed conditions admit many valid seatings (an exhaustive search found dozens); the key matches arrangement R U P Q V _ T S, but the answer isn't uniquely forced.

Q50 Seating puzzle: vacant seat relates to V and T as P relates to U and Q; what relates to U likewise? More than one answer

Official key: B —

R and P

Arrangement that matches the key. Seats 1–8 run west to east. A north-facing person's left is west; a south-facing person's left is east.

  • Seat 1: R, faces south, White
  • Seat 2: U, faces north, Red
  • Seat 3: P, faces south, Yellow
  • Seat 4: Q, faces south, Orange
  • Seat 5: V, faces south, Black
  • Seat 6: vacant
  • Seat 7: T, faces north, Purple
  • Seat 8: S, faces north, Blue

Checks:
- T (7) and P (3) have 3 seats between them, and neither is at an end.
- Persons between U and Q: 1 (P). Between Q and S: 2 (V, T).
- V's only neighbour is Q (seat 4), which is 3rd to the left of R (seat 1, facing south).
- U and T face north; Q faces south.
- Orange (Q) is 3rd to the left of T. T likes Purple.
- The ends, R and S, face opposite ways.
- Seats between Blue (8) and Yellow (3): 4. Persons between Red (2) and Black (5): 2. So .
- White (R) is not next to the vacant seat, and Red (U) sits beside White.
- Yellow (P) faces south, opposite to T.
- The people beside the vacant seat, V and T, face the same way as their other neighbours, Q and S.

Caution: a systematic check shows the printed conditions also allow many other arrangements, so the puzzle does not force this one.

Solving. The vacant seat (6) sits between V (5) and T (7). P (3) sits between U (2) and Q (4).

By the same relation, U (2) sits between R (1) and P (3).

Why it is arguable:

Printed conditions admit many valid seatings (an exhaustive search found dozens); the key matches arrangement R U P Q V _ T S, but the answer isn't uniquely forced.

Q51 Seating puzzle: which persons sit at the extreme ends of the line? More than one answer

Official key: B —

The person who likes White and Blue colour

Arrangement that matches the key. Seats 1–8 run west to east. A north-facing person's left is west; a south-facing person's left is east.

  • Seat 1: R, faces south, White
  • Seat 2: U, faces north, Red
  • Seat 3: P, faces south, Yellow
  • Seat 4: Q, faces south, Orange
  • Seat 5: V, faces south, Black
  • Seat 6: vacant
  • Seat 7: T, faces north, Purple
  • Seat 8: S, faces north, Blue

Checks:
- T (7) and P (3) have 3 seats between them, and neither is at an end.
- Persons between U and Q: 1 (P). Between Q and S: 2 (V, T).
- V's only neighbour is Q (seat 4), which is 3rd to the left of R (seat 1, facing south).
- U and T face north; Q faces south.
- Orange (Q) is 3rd to the left of T. T likes Purple.
- The ends, R and S, face opposite ways.
- Seats between Blue (8) and Yellow (3): 4. Persons between Red (2) and Black (5): 2. So .
- White (R) is not next to the vacant seat, and Red (U) sits beside White.
- Yellow (P) faces south, opposite to T.
- The people beside the vacant seat, V and T, face the same way as their other neighbours, Q and S.

Caution: a systematic check shows the printed conditions also allow many other arrangements, so the puzzle does not force this one.

Solving. The ends are seat 1, R (White), and seat 8, S (Blue).

Why it is arguable:

Printed conditions admit many valid seatings (an exhaustive search found dozens); the key matches arrangement R U P Q V _ T S, but the answer isn't uniquely forced.

Q52 Seating puzzle: if N occupies the vacant seat, who is second to the left of Q? More than one answer

Official key: D —

N

Arrangement that matches the key. Seats 1–8 run west to east. A north-facing person's left is west; a south-facing person's left is east.

  • Seat 1: R, faces south, White
  • Seat 2: U, faces north, Red
  • Seat 3: P, faces south, Yellow
  • Seat 4: Q, faces south, Orange
  • Seat 5: V, faces south, Black
  • Seat 6: vacant
  • Seat 7: T, faces north, Purple
  • Seat 8: S, faces north, Blue

Checks:
- T (7) and P (3) have 3 seats between them, and neither is at an end.
- Persons between U and Q: 1 (P). Between Q and S: 2 (V, T).
- V's only neighbour is Q (seat 4), which is 3rd to the left of R (seat 1, facing south).
- U and T face north; Q faces south.
- Orange (Q) is 3rd to the left of T. T likes Purple.
- The ends, R and S, face opposite ways.
- Seats between Blue (8) and Yellow (3): 4. Persons between Red (2) and Black (5): 2. So .
- White (R) is not next to the vacant seat, and Red (U) sits beside White.
- Yellow (P) faces south, opposite to T.
- The people beside the vacant seat, V and T, face the same way as their other neighbours, Q and S.

Caution: a systematic check shows the printed conditions also allow many other arrangements, so the puzzle does not force this one.

Solving. Q is at seat 4 facing south, so Q's left runs toward seat 8. Second to the left of Q is seat 6, the vacant seat, now taken by N.

Why it is arguable:

Printed conditions admit many valid seatings (an exhaustive search found dozens); the key matches arrangement R U P Q V _ T S, but the answer isn't uniquely forced.

Q53 Mirror image of TARAIN1014A.

Answer: D —

4

A mirror beside the text reverses the order of the characters and flips each one left to right. The result reads A 4 1 0 1 N I A R A T from left to right, with N, R, 4 and 1 drawn reversed.

  • (4) has exactly that order with the reversed N and R ✓.
  • (2) keeps the digits as 1014, so their order is not reversed ✗.
  • (1) ends in a wrong letter shape in place of T ✗.
  • (3) jumbles the letter order ✗.

Answer: (4).

Q54 Plays A–E, Monday–Friday: which play is staged first?

Answer: A —

A

Fixing the order. The blocks are EC (E immediately before C) and DB (D immediately before B), plus A. Neither D nor E may be 1st or 5th.

  • If E or D starts a block that is placed first, the rule is broken. So A is first, followed by EC and DB in some order.
  • A, E, C, D, B: A (1) and B (5) have three plays between them ✗.
  • A, D, B, E, C: D is 2nd and E is 4th ✓, and exactly one play (D) sits between A and B ✓.

The order is A D B E C.

The first play is A.

Q55 Plays A–E: correct staging sequence?

Answer: A —

ADBEC

Fixing the order. The blocks are EC (E immediately before C) and DB (D immediately before B), plus A. Neither D nor E may be 1st or 5th.

  • If E or D starts a block that is placed first, the rule is broken. So A is first, followed by EC and DB in some order.
  • A, E, C, D, B: A (1) and B (5) have three plays between them ✗.
  • A, D, B, E, C: D is 2nd and E is 4th ✓, and exactly one play (D) sits between A and B ✓.

The order is A D B E C.

Answer: ADBEC.

Q56 Plays A–E: which play is staged on Wednesday?

Answer: B —

B

Fixing the order. The blocks are EC (E immediately before C) and DB (D immediately before B), plus A. Neither D nor E may be 1st or 5th.

  • If E or D starts a block that is placed first, the rule is broken. So A is first, followed by EC and DB in some order.
  • A, E, C, D, B: A (1) and B (5) have three plays between them ✗.
  • A, D, B, E, C: D is 2nd and E is 4th ✓, and exactly one play (D) sits between A and B ✓.

The order is A D B E C.

Wednesday is the 3rd day, so the play is B.

Q57 Who is C's partner in a four-player card game? I: D opposite A. II: B is right of A and left of D. Key corrected

Answer: C —

if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;

Official key: A — if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;

In a four-handed card game, partners sit opposite each other.

  • I alone: D is opposite A, so A and D are partners and C's partner is B. Sufficient.
  • II alone: B is on A's right and on D's left, so A and D are B's two neighbours. That puts A opposite D, and C must be opposite B, making them partners. Also sufficient.

Since each statement alone is sufficient, the logical choice is C (either I or II alone). The key gives A (I alone).

Why we differ from the key:

Statement II puts A and D on either side of B, which in a four-seat game places A opposite D just as statement I does. Either statement alone is therefore sufficient (option C), not statement I alone.

Q58 What day is the 14th? I: last day of month is Wednesday. II: third Saturday was the 17th. Key corrected

Answer: B —

if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;

Official key: A — if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;

  • I alone: the month's length (28, 29, 30 or 31 days) isn't given, so the 14th can't be fixed. Not sufficient.
  • II alone: the 17th is a Saturday, so the 14th, three days earlier, is a Wednesday. Sufficient.

The logical answer is B (II alone). The key gives A.

Why we differ from the key:

Statement I gives no month length, so the 14th cannot be fixed from it. Statement II puts the 17th on a Saturday, making the 14th a Wednesday. Only statement II is sufficient (option B).

Q59 SEQUENCE is coded FDOFVRFT. Code for CHILDREN?

Answer: B —

OFSEMJID

Rule: write the word backwards, then move each letter forward by one.

SEQUENCE reversed is E C N E U Q E S. Adding one to each letter gives F D O F V R F T ✓.

CHILDREN reversed is N E R D L I H C. Adding one gives O F S E M J I D.

Answer: OFSEMJID.

Q60 Code: Elephant→Jackal, Jackal→Monkey, Monkey→Dog, Dog→Lion, Lion→Goat, Goat→Mouse. Who is king of the jungle?

Answer: B —

Goat

The king of the jungle is the lion. In this code, Lion is called Goat.

Answer: Goat.

Q61 Desirable to put a child in school at about age 5. Assumptions: I child ready to learn then; II schools don't admit after six.

Answer: A —

Only assumption I is implicit

  • I: calling age 5 *desirable* presumes the child is developmentally ready then. Implicit.
  • II: the statement is about what's desirable, not about admission rules. Nothing suggests schools refuse older children. Not implicit.

Answer: Only I is implicit.

Q62 To bring punctuality, provide conveyance allowance. Assumptions: I allowance won't help punctuality; II discipline and reward go hand in hand.

Answer: B —

Only assumption II is implicit

  • I contradicts the speaker, who expects the allowance to *bring* punctuality. Not implicit.
  • II: the speaker pairs a reward (the allowance) with a disciplinary goal (punctuality). This assumes the two work together. Implicit.

Answer: Only II is implicit.

Q63 Man walks 5 km south, turns right and walks 3 km, turns left and walks 5 km. Direction from start?

Answer: D —

South-West

Put the start at .

  • 5 km south takes him to .
  • Turning right while facing south means facing west. 3 km takes him to .
  • Turning left while facing west means facing south. 5 km takes him to .

He ends west and south of the start: South-West.

Q64 Missing term: 2, 7, 10, 22, 18, 37, 26, ?

Answer: A —

52

The series is two interleaved sequences:

  • Odd positions: 2, 10, 18, 26 (adding 8 each time)
  • Even positions: 7, 22, 37, 52 (adding 15 each time)

Answer: 52.

Q65 Next term: 544, 509, 474, 439, …

Answer: B —

404

Each term is 35 less than the one before. .

Answer: 404.

Q66 Venn diagram for students learning law & music, music & dance, law & dance, and all three.

Answer: A —

A

Every pair of subjects overlaps, and some students take all three. That needs three mutually overlapping circles with a common central region, which is diagram (A).

  • (B) is a chain, so the outer circles never meet.
  • (C) has separate subsets.
  • (D) has nested circles.

Answer: A.

Q67 Team scored 200, spinners made 160. Conclusions: I 80% of team are spinners; II openers were spinners. Key looks wrong

Official key: A —

Only conclusion I follows

  • I: spinners scoring 80% of the runs says nothing about how many players are spinners. Doesn't follow.
  • II: nothing is said about the batting order. Doesn't follow.

Logically, neither conclusion follows (option D). The key gives A.

Where we differ:

Share of runs does not imply share of players, and batting order isn't mentioned; neither conclusion follows (option D), not the key's A.

Q68 The old order changed yielding place to new. Conclusions: I change is law of nature; II discard old ideas because they are old.

Answer: A —

Only conclusion I follows

  • I: the statement is the classic expression that change is inevitable, the way of nature. Follows.
  • II: the old gave way to the new, but nothing says old ideas should be thrown out *because* they are old. Doesn't follow.

Answer: Only I follows.

Q69 Machine input: in Step VI, which number lies between the 1st and 3rd numbers?

Answer: A —

84

Step VI: 95, 84, 78, 76, 67, 38, 13, 18.

Between the 1st (95) and the 3rd (78) is 84.

Q70 Machine input: which number comes after 18 in Step IV?

Answer: C —

38

Step IV: 95, 84, 78, 76, 13, 67, 18, 38.

The number after 18 is 38.

Q71 Machine input: in Step VII, which number lies between the 3rd and 5th numbers?

Answer: D —

76

Step VII: 95, 84, 78, 76, 67, 38, 18, 13.

Between the 3rd (78) and the 5th (67) is 76.

Q72 Grandfather was 8 times Tanya's age 16 years ago and will be 3 times it in 8 years. Ratio of their ages 8 years ago?

Answer: C —

11 : 53

Let the present ages be and .

  • 16 years ago: , so .
  • In 8 years: , so , giving and .

8 years ago: .

Check: scaled by is ✓.

Answer: 11 : 53.

Q73 Clock loses 4 min/day, set right 2 p.m. Feb 25, 2008. Minutes to add when it shows 9 a.m. Mar 3, 2008?

Answer: A —

9780/359

2008 is a leap year, so February has 29 days.

From 2 p.m. Feb 25 to 2 p.m. Mar 3 is 7 days. Stopping at 9 a.m. instead gives 6 days 19 hours h min shown on the clock.

The clock shows min for every real minutes, so:

Minutes to add .

Answer: 9780/359.

Q74 Given M=V, R≥S, V<S, M>A, R≤U: which of U>S, R=S, R>S is true?

Answer: D —

Either II or III is true

From we get . So I () is not definite.

means exactly one of or holds, and neither alone is certain. II and III form a complementary pair.

Answer: Either II or III is true.

Q75 Given A<P=C≥D, S>U≤B<A, C<Q>S≥V: which of U>V, B<C, Q>D are true?

Answer: D —

Only II and III is true

  • I: and give no relation between U and V. Not definite.
  • II: , so ✓.
  • III: , so ✓.

Answer: Only II and III are true.

Q76 Most stuffed toys have beans; stuffed bears and tigers exist; some chairs have beans. Which statements must be facts?

Answer: D —

None of the statements is a known fact.

  • I: the facts say *some* chairs have beans, not which ones. Children's chairs are never mentioned.
  • II: *most* stuffed toys have beans, not all, so not all tigers necessarily do.
  • III: monkeys are never mentioned.

Answer: None of the statements is a known fact.

Q77 Atul is 12th from right and 4th from left. Boys to add so the line has 28?

Answer: B —

13

Boys in the line .

Boys to add .

Answer: 13.

Q78 Five in a row, who is middle? I: B between E and C; II: B right of E; III: D between A and E. Key looks wrong

Official key: D —

I, II and III together.

Read "between" as immediately between.

  • I gives the block E B C (or C B E).
  • III gives the block A D E (or E D A).
  • The blocks share E, which must end both of them. The row is A D E B C or its reverse, and E is in the middle either way.

So I and III together already answer the question (option C). II only fixes the direction, which isn't needed for the middle. If "between" meant not necessarily adjacent, even all three wouldn't be enough (for example E B D C A). So option D is never the minimal set.

Where we differ:

Statements I and III alone force A-D-E-B-C (or its reverse) with E in the middle, so option C suffices; the key's 'all three' is not minimal.

Q79 Sanjay's birth year? I: 6 years older than Gopal; II: Gopal's brother born 1982; III: that brother is 8 years younger than Gopal.

Answer: D —

I, II and III together.

Chain the three statements:

  • II: Gopal's brother was born in 1982.
  • III: Gopal's brother is eight years younger than Gopal, so Gopal was born in 1974.
  • I: Sanjay is six years older than Gopal, so Sanjay was born in 1968.

Take away any one statement and the chain breaks, so all three are needed.

Answer: I, II and III together.

Q80 IMTITJU is coded TMIIUJT. Code for TEMREMP?

Answer: B —

METRPME

Compare positions: I M T I T J U becomes T M I I U J T.

Rule: swap letters 1 and 3, and swap letters 5 and 7. Letters 2, 4 and 6 stay put.

T E M R E M P becomes M E T R P M E.

Answer: METRPME.

English Language

Q81 Antonym of ABOMINATE.

Answer: B —

esteem

*Abominate* means to loathe or detest. Its opposite is to hold in high regard: esteem.

  • *Gratify* means to please.
  • *Console* means to comfort.
  • *Support* means to back up.

None of these three is the opposite of hating.

Answer: esteem.

Q82 Antonym of ABHOR.

Answer: D —

greatly admire

*Abhor* means to hate intensely. The exact opposite is greatly admire.

*Inspire*, *credit* and *improve* have nothing to do with hating or liking.

Answer: greatly admire.

Q83 Antonym of ENORMOUS. Key corrected

Answer: C —

Tiny

Official key: B — Average

*Enormous* means extremely large. Its exact opposite is extremely small: tiny (option C).

*Average* is only a middle point between large and small, not the opposite. *Soft* and *weak* describe texture and strength, not size.

The key gives *Average*, but the true antonym is *Tiny*.

Why we differ from the key:

"Enormous" means extremely large, so its opposite is extremely small — tiny (option C). "Average" is a midpoint between large and small, not an opposite.

Q84 Synonym of IMPROMPTU.

Answer: A —

Offhand

*Impromptu* means done without preparation, on the spur of the moment. Offhand (unrehearsed) has the same meaning.

*Unimportant*, *unreal* and *effective* don't mean unprepared.

Answer: Offhand.

Q85 Synonym of WRETCHED.

Answer: A —

Poor

*Wretched* means miserable, pitiable, in a poor or unhappy state. Poor, in the sense of unfortunate or pitiable, is the closest match.

  • *Foolish* and *insane* concern the mind.
  • *Strained* means tense.

Answer: Poor.

Q86 Synonym of ERRONEOUS.

Answer: D —

Incorrect

*Erroneous* means containing errors, i.e. incorrect.

  • *Digressive* means wandering off topic.
  • *Confused* means unclear.
  • *Impenetrable* means impossible to get through or understand.

Answer: Incorrect.

Q87 In his dream, where did Harold find the loathsome creatures?

Answer: C —

in a different land

The passage says that in his dream Harold found himself in a land where slug-like creatures lived on people's bodies. The setting is a strange land, not his village, house or office. The office is only mentioned as his real-life workplace.

Answer: in a different land.

Q88 Which phrases best bring out the meaning of 'loathsome creatures'?

Answer: C —

Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals

The creatures are first described as small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles, so those two phrases define them.

  • *Security bug* is the later metaphor for what they stood for, not a description of them.
  • *Fearful dream* describes the dream, not the creatures.

Answer: Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals.

Q89 'He later threw off the security bug' means that…

Answer: A —

Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security

The "security bug" stands for Harold's reliance on a secure job, letting society feed on him in exchange for support in retirement. Throwing it off, and then taking up freelance work, means he overcame his need for security.

  • He killed no real bugs.
  • He didn't stop valuing dreams; the dream is what changed him.
  • He stopped tolerating the arrangement, rather than starting to.

Answer: Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security.

Q90 Harold's dream was fearful because…

Answer: D —

in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies

The fear came from the dream's content: loathsome slimy creatures living and feeding on people's bodies, and then discovering that he was covered with them too. That is what made him wake up screaming.

  • A: the confrontation with reality is what the dream *meant* on reflection, not why it was frightening.
  • B: the creatures were slug-like, not snakes.
  • C: the elephants were the harmless transport system.

Answer: D.

Q91 Complete: 'His appearance is unsmiling but ……'

Answer: A —

his heart is full of compassion for others

*But* signals a contrast with the stern appearance. Only a heart full of compassion gives that contrast.

  • "Looks very serious" and "people are afraid of him" continue the same idea.
  • "Uncompromising on tasks" also goes along with an unsmiling manner rather than against it.

Answer: A.

Q92 Complete: 'To help the company enhance profit, all the employees ……'

Answer: D —

voluntarily offered to render additional services in lieu of nothing

The purpose is to *raise profit*. Only extra work for no extra pay does that.

  • Paid leave and new welfare schemes add costs.
  • Overtime "with lucrative compensation" also adds costs.

Answer: D.

Q93 Fill blanks: 'The manners and ___ of the nouveau riche is a recurrent ___ in literature.'

Answer: D —

morals, theme

*Manners and morals* is a natural pairing about behaviour and values. A subject that keeps coming back in literature is a recurrent theme.

  • *Style, motif*: "manners and style" is redundant.
  • *Morals, story*: "a recurrent story" is unidiomatic.
  • *Wealth, theme*: "manners and wealth" is an odd pairing, since the nouveau riche are already defined by their wealth.

Answer: morals, theme.

Q94 Para-jumble (future beckons … redeem our pledge): order P, Q, R, S.

Answer: C —

QSRP

  • S1 → Q: "The future beckons" leads to the question of where we go and what our endeavour will be.
  • Q → S: S answers it: *It* (the endeavour) will be to bring freedom and opportunity.
  • S → R: R adds a further task with "also": fight poverty, ignorance and disease.
  • R → P: P sums up, "In fact we have hard work ahead".
  • P → S6: hard work leads naturally to "no resting … till we redeem our pledge".

Answer: QSRP.

Q95 Para-jumble (halted on the road … watch him and go home): order P, Q, R, S.

Answer: A —

SPQR

  • S1 → S: having halted on the road, he describes where the elephant was, 8 yards away.
  • S → P: seeing the elephant, he knew he should not shoot it.
  • P → Q: Q gives the reason: shooting a working elephant is a serious matter.
  • Q → R: R adds that the elephant's *must* was already passing off, so it was no longer dangerous.
  • R → S6: so he decided to watch it for a while and go home.

Answer: SPQR.

Q96 Para-jumble (noise above their heads … 200 lives lost): order P, Q, R, S.

Answer: B —

QPRS

  • S1 → Q: the noise was meant to show everyone that something was wrong ("That" refers to the noise).
  • Q → P: *But* people did not take it seriously.
  • P → R: ignoring it was a dangerous thing to do.
  • R → S: "For, within minutes the ship began to sink" explains why it was dangerous.
  • S → S6: nearly 200 lives were lost.

Answer: QPRS.

Q97 Analogy: TEN : DECIMAL

Answer: C —

two : binary

The decimal system is the number system with base ten. The binary system is the one with base two.

  • A septet and a quartet are *groups* of seven and four performers, not number systems.
  • A quince is a fruit.

Answer: two : binary.

Q98 Analogy: Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?

Answer: B —

Horse

A cat's foot is a paw; a horse's foot is a hoof.

  • A lion also has paws.
  • An elephant's foot is not called a hoof.
  • The horse is the standard example of a hoofed animal.

Answer: Horse.

Q99 Meaning of the idiom 'to make a clean breast of'.

Answer: C —

To confess without of reserve

To *make a clean breast of* something is to confess it fully and frankly, holding nothing back.

The other options (gaining prominence, self-praise, destroying something early) have no link to the idiom.

Answer: To confess without reserve.

Q100 Meaning of the idiom 'to have an axe to grind'.

Answer: A —

A private end to serve

Someone with *an axe to grind* has a private motive or selfish interest behind what they do or say.

It doesn't mean failing to arouse interest, having no result, or working for both sides.

Answer: A private end to serve.

Q101 Spot the error: 'When I were a newspaper journalist / I always relied on the news editor and / the subs to put things right.'

Answer: A —

When I were a newspaper journalist

The subject *I* takes was in the past tense: "When I was a newspaper journalist". *Were* after "I" is only used in hypotheticals ("If I were…").

The rest of the sentence is correct.

Answer: A.

Q102 Spot the error: 'I could count on one / hand the things / I know about my friend.' More than one answer

Official key: A —

I could count on one

The key finds the error in part A. The reasoning is tense agreement: the clause "I know about my friend" is in the present, so the main verb should be "I can count on one hand".

However, *could* is also used in natural English as a hypothetical ("I could count them on one hand if asked"). On that reading the sentence is acceptable and "no error" (D) is defensible.

Why it is arguable:

The key treats 'could' as a tense mismatch with 'know', but hypothetical 'could' is idiomatic, so 'no error' is also defensible.

Q103 Metro family income rose because husbands and wives both work. Which inference cannot be drawn?

Answer: A —

Wives earn more than their husbands today.

The statement is only about both spouses working, not about who earns more. So "Wives earn more than their husbands" cannot be drawn.

  • B, C and D all follow: working spouses were less common before, family income used to be lower, and more couples work now.

Answer: A.

Q104 Should powerful nations attack weaker nations that pose probable danger to world peace? 1: yes, war justified for peacekeeping; 2: no, war never.

Answer: A —

If only 1 is implicit

  • Argument 1 ties directly to the question's premise: the weaker nation threatens world peace, and force is justified to keep that peace. It is relevant and forceful.
  • Argument 2 is an absolute ("never"). Such sweeping claims are treated as weak because they ignore the specific situation.

Answer: Only 1.

Q105 Homonyms: ____ is the most important city of a country.

Answer: C —

Capital

Capital is the chief city, or seat of government, of a country.

  • *Capitol* is a legislative building, such as the US Capitol.
  • *Capetol* is not a word.
  • *Capitalisation* is unrelated.

Answer: Capital.

Q106 Homonyms: which word expresses (physical) distance?

Answer: A —

Farther

Farther is used for physical distance ("the farther shore").

  • *Further* is preferred for figurative or additional degree ("further discussion").
  • *Father* is a parent.
  • *Ferther* is not a word.

Answer: Farther.

Q107 Improve: 'There is no more room for you in this compartment.'

Answer: D —

No improvement

*Room* here means available space, and "no more room for you" is idiomatic and correct.

  • "No more seat" is ungrammatical (it would need "no more seats").
  • "Space" and "accommodation" are no better.

Answer: No improvement.

Q108 Improve: 'If he would have tried he would have succeeded.'

Answer: C —

had tried

A third conditional (an unreal past) uses had + past participle in the *if*-clause: "If he had tried, he would have succeeded." *Would have* must not appear in the *if*-clause.

"Is tried" and "was tried" are passive and wrong in meaning.

Answer: had tried.

Q109 Correct usage of CONFLATE in (I) combining two processes, (II) 'conflate compartments', (III) conflating snarling dogs.

Answer: A —

Only (I)

*Conflate* means to combine two or more things into one.

  • (I) merges two processes into one ✓.
  • (II) uses it as an adjective meaning "separate", which is wrong.
  • (III) uses it to mean "separate the dogs", which is the opposite of its meaning.

Answer: Only (I).

Q110 Correct usage of RARE in (I) rare coin edition, (II) rare form of cancer, (III) 'standing in the rare of the line'.

Answer: D —

Both (I) and (II)

*Rare* means uncommon.

  • (I) a rare edition ✓.
  • (II) a rare form of bone cancer ✓.
  • (III) confuses *rare* with rear (the back of the line) ✗.

Answer: Both (I) and (II).

Q111 Concussions passage: all these can be inferred EXCEPT…

Answer: C —

NFL officials have done little to address the problem of CTE

The passage describes the NFL revising its safety rules: sideline concussion assessments, stricter penalties for helmet-to-helmet hits, and whistling the ball dead when a helmet comes off. It even calls these efforts laudable. So "NFL officials have done little" is false.

The other options are supported:
- Proper tackling form is urged.
- Autopsies found CTE in every player examined who had committed suicide.
- Glorifying brutal hits rewards and encourages such behaviour.

Answer: C.

Q112 Concussions passage: which factors contribute to CTE in amateur players? I uneven regulations; II lack of education; III wish to emulate pros. No option is correct

Official key: C —

I and II only

  • I is supported: professional rules "cannot protect amateur players", and youth leagues should adopt stricter rules. The standards are not applied consistently across levels.
  • II is supported: young athletes "should be educated" about the dangers of head injuries.
  • III is also stated in the final paragraph: when the media glorifies violent hits, amateurs become more likely to imitate their favourite NFL athletes.

The passage supports all three, but no option includes all three. The key picks "I and II only".

Why no option fits:

The final paragraph states factor III (amateurs imitating professionals) as well as I and II, so the passage supports all three — and no option offers all three.

Q113 Concussions passage: best synonym for 'laudable'.

Answer: A —

praiseworthy

The author says the NFL's efforts are *laudable* and that "we should commend every attempt". *Laudable* means deserving praise: praiseworthy.

  • *Ineffectual* means useless.
  • *Memorable* means worth remembering.
  • *Audacious* means bold.

None of these fits.

Answer: praiseworthy.

Q114 Concussions passage: author's tone in the final paragraph.

Answer: D —

insistent

The last paragraph is full of firm demands: the media "should engage in a collective effort to cease glorifying brutal plays", fans "should stop expecting…", and players "must not be encouraged…". That is an insistent tone.

It isn't remorseful (no regret), hopeless (it proposes remedies) or perplexed (it isn't confused).

Answer: insistent.

Q115 Concussions passage: best antonym for 'exalts' (final paragraph).

Answer: A —

mitigates

*Exalts* here means glorifies or plays up dangerous behaviour. The opposite idea is to play it down or lessen it, and mitigates (lessens) is the closest.

  • *Venerates* is a synonym of exalts.
  • *Mollifies* means soothes a person.
  • *Expedites* means speeds up.

Answer: mitigates.

Q116 Concussions passage: in describing the sports media, the author emphasizes its…

Answer: A —

responsibility

The author says the most important factor "lies … with the media and fans" and calls on media professionals to act together to stop glorifying brutal plays. The emphasis is on the media's responsibility.

  • Entertainment value is what the author criticises, not what they stress.
  • "Senselessness" and "danger" aren't how the media itself is characterised.

Answer: responsibility.

Q117 Concussions passage: sports highlight shows (hardest-hit countdowns) are an example of how… I media glorifies violence; II amateurs mimic; III pros gain approval.

Answer: A —

I only

The highlight shows with weekly countdowns of the hardest hits are listed with the replays and admiring commentary. They are examples of how the media glorifies violence (I).

II (amateur imitation) and III (professionals being rewarded) are *consequences* the author draws in the next sentence. They are not what the highlight shows exemplify.

Answer: I only.

Q118 Storm passage: meaning of 'overthrown' in context.

Answer: B —

devastated

The towns were *overthrown* by the storm, meaning knocked down or destroyed: devastated.

*Surrendered*, *capitulated* and *yielded* are the political sense of *overthrown* (giving up power), which doesn't fit towns hit by a storm.

Answer: devastated.

Q119 Storm passage: meaning of 'levelled' as used.

Answer: A —

razed

Whole districts *levelled* by waterspouts means flattened to the ground: razed.

*Marked* and *spread* don't fit, and *raised* is the opposite of flattened.

Answer: razed.

Q120 Storm passage: best word for the blank in 'such were the traces of its ___'.

Answer: B —

Fury

The destruction listed (towns overthrown, forests uprooted, thousands killed) is the mark of the storm's violent anger: its fury.

  • *Velocity* is merely speed.
  • *Reward* and *benevolence* contradict the destruction.

Answer: Fury.

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About the IPMAT Rohtak exam pattern

IPMAT Rohtak is conducted by IIM Rohtak. The format below is the standard pattern — check the official notification for the current year's exact rules before you sit the exam.

SectionsQuantitative Aptitude · Logical Reasoning · Verbal Ability
Questions40 + 40 + 40 = 120
Duration120 minutes (single paper)
Marking+4 / −1
Full IPMAT Rohtak guide — syllabus, prep plan & FAQs →