IPMAT Indore 2025 · Question Paper & Solutions

IIM Indore

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Official question paper · For practice and educational use only. On mobile, the PDF may open in your default reader.

Worked solutions — IPMAT Indore 2025

Every question, solved step by step. Each answer is checked against the official key printed with the paper — 89 of 90 solutions reach it. Try each question before opening it.

The other 1 question is flagged. The official key is always shown; the flag says what the problem is.

  • 1 more than one answer — more than one answer is defensible

Quantitative Ability (Short Answer)

Q1 Arpita and Nikita together finish a job in 12 days; Arpita doing 40% and Nikita the remaining 60% takes 24 days. Days for Nikita alone? More than one answer

Official key: 20

Let Arpita alone take days and Nikita alone days.

  • Together:
  • Split job:

Substitute: , so , i.e. .

  • : check and days.
  • : check and days.

The official answer is 20 (Nikita faster than Arpita).

Why it is arguable:

The equations give two valid values, 20 and 24 (the case where both work at the same rate also satisfies every condition). The key lists only 20.

Q2 Five 15-member teams of biologists, geologists, explorers with equal skill totals and given constraints. Number of biologists in team E?

Answer: 4

Total members , so each skill set has members.

Explorers. They are distinct and decrease A > B > C > D > E, each at least 2. Upper bounds:

  • C has 6 biologists and more biologists than explorers, so ; hence , .
  • B: biologists > explorers and geologists , so .
  • A: 6 geologists and at least 2 biologists, so .

Maximum possible total , which must be reached exactly. So explorers are A 7, B 6, C 5, D 4, E 3.

Complete the grid (Biologists, Geologists, Explorers):

  • A: biologists → (2, 6, 7)
  • B: biologists and geologists with → (7, 2, 6)
  • C: (6, 4, 5); D: (6, 5, 4)
  • E: biologists , geologists → (4, 8, 3)

Check geologists: . ✓

Biologists in team E 4.

Q3 Distinct natural numbers a, b, c below 100 satisfy |a−b| + |b−c| = |c−a|. Maximum possible value of b?

Answer: 98

By the triangle inequality, , with equality exactly when lies between and .

Since the numbers are distinct, must be strictly between them, so one of is larger than . The largest allowed number is , so . Example: gives . ✓

Maximum 98.

Q4 Eight teams in a single round-robin; one team is suspended after playing 3 matches. Total matches actually played?

Answer: 24

A full round robin of 8 teams has matches.

The suspended team would have played 7 matches but played only 3, so matches are cancelled. All other matches go ahead.

Matches played 24.

Q5 Sum of first 21 terms of ln(a/b), ln(a/(b√b)), ln(a/b²), ln(a/(b²√b)), … equals ln(aᵐ/bⁿ). Find m + n.

Answer: 147

Write each term as , where , i.e. .

Sum of 21 terms .

So the sum is : , , and 147.

Q6 120 students take English and Math exams; relations link absentees, passes and appeared-but-failed counts. How many appeared but failed English?

Answer: 40

Let = absent from Math, so = absent from English. Let = appeared but failed; = passed.

Given and :

  • English:
  • Math:

Add: .

Subtract (Math − English): .

Adding these two results: 40 (independent of ).

Q7 A = [[2, n], [4, 1]] and A³ = 27·[[4, q], [p, r]]. Find p + q + r.

Answer: 12

Top-left must equal : .

Then , so .

12.

Q8 Same expedition-teams caselet. Number of teams having more geologists than biologists?

Answer: 2

From the grid derived in Q2 (Biologists, Geologists, Explorers):

  • A (2, 6, 7), B (7, 2, 6), C (6, 4, 5), D (6, 5, 4), E (4, 8, 3)

The explorer totals are forced: the upper bounds A ≤ 7, B ≤ 6, C ≤ 5, D ≤ 4, E ≤ 3 add to exactly 25, so every team is at its bound, and the rest follows.

Geologists > biologists: A () and E (). B, C, D have more biologists.

Answer: 2 teams.

Q9 log₃(x²−1), log₃(2x²+1), log₃(6x²+3) are the first three terms of an AP. Sum of the next three terms?

Answer: 15

AP condition: , so

Since , divide: .

Terms: (common difference 1).

Next three terms: 15.

Q10 Circle of radius 13 touches sides AB, BC of square ABCD (side 18) at M, N and cuts CD, DA at P, Q. Area of triangle PMD?

Answer: 153

Place , , , . A circle tangent to () and () with radius 13 has centre , so .

On (): ; inside the square , so .

Triangle : and lie on , so base ; the height is the distance from to , which is 18.

Area 153 sq. cm.

Q11 Monica, 18, is one-third her father's age. At what age will she be half her father's age?

Answer: 36

Father's age , so the age gap is years, and it never changes.

If Monica is when she is half his age: 36 (father 72).

Q12 Same expedition-teams caselet. Median number of biologists across the five teams?

Answer: 6

From the grid in Q2, biologists are A 2, B 7, C 6, D 6, E 4.

Sorted: . The middle value is 6.

Q13 Positive integers m, n satisfy 7m + 11n = 200. Minimum possible value of m + n?

Answer: 20

Work mod 7: and , so .

  • : ,
  • : ,
  • : ,
  • : , not allowed

Each step raises by 7 and lowers by 11, so falls by 4. The largest valid gives the minimum: 20.

Q14 Number of factors of 3⁵ × 5⁸ × 7² that are perfect squares?

Answer: 30

A square factor needs every exponent even:

  • : 3 choices
  • : 5 choices
  • : 2 choices

Total 30.

Q15 ax² + bx + 5 leaves remainder 3 on division by x − 1 and remainder 2 on division by x + 1. Find 2b − 4a.

Answer: 11

Remainder theorem:

So , , and 11.

Quantitative Ability (MCQ)

Q16 Given 1 + 1/2² + 1/3² + … = π²/6, find 1 + 1/3² + 1/5² + 1/7² + ….

Answer: D —

Let . The even terms are .

Odd terms .

Q17 If y = a + b logₑx, which statement is true?

Answer: C —

is proportional to

.

Since is a constant, .

  • (B) fails: , a logarithm of , not proportional to it.
  • (A), (D) do not follow from the relation.
Q18 a₁,…,a₈ are roots of x⁸ + x⁷ + … + x + 1 = 0. Find a₁²⁰²⁵ + a₂²⁰²⁵ + … + a₈²⁰²⁵.

Answer: C —

8

, so the roots are the ninth roots of unity other than 1. Each satisfies .

, so .

Sum .

Q19 Real a, b, c: Max + Min = 15 and Median − Mean = 2. Find the median.

Answer: B —

10.5

Let the numbers in order be , with .

.

Q20 If log₂₅[5 log₃(1 + log₃(1 + 2 log₂x))] = 1/2, find x.

Answer: B —

16

Peel off one layer at a time:

Q21 n is between 100 and 400 with digit sum 10. Probability that n is divisible by 4?

Answer: B —

Hundreds digit is 1, 2 or 3; the last two digits must add to 9, 8 or 7.

  • (sum 9): 10 numbers; last two digits divisible by 4: 36, 72 → 2
  • (sum 8): 9 numbers; 08, 44, 80 → 3
  • (sum 7): 8 numbers; 16, 52 → 2

Total numbers, favourable . Probability .

Q22 In triangle ABC, AB = AC = x, ∠ABC = θ, circumradius y. Find x/y.

Answer: D —

By the sine rule, a side equals times the sine of the opposite angle. Side is opposite :

.

Q23 In 8x² − 2kx + k = 0 one root is p times the other (p, k > 0). Find k.

Answer: C —

Let the roots be and .

  • Sum:
  • Product:

Divide the square of the sum by the product: .

.

Q24 A(1, 3), B(5, 1). A line of slope m meets AB at 45°. Possible values of m?

Answer: C —

Slope of .

.

  • :
  • :
Q25 Quadratic P(x) with determinant |P(0) P(1); P(0) P(2)| = 0, P(0) = 2 and P(1)+P(2)+P(3) = 14. Find P(4).

Answer: C —

-6

Determinant . Since , .

Let . .

  • ,
  • Sum:

.

Q26 A circle touches the y-axis at (0, 4) and passes through (−2, 0). Radius?

Answer: B —

5

Tangent to the y-axis at means the centre is and the radius is .

Through : .

Radius .

Q27 A dog runs around a 4-6-9 m triangle, always exactly 1 m from it. Distance covered in one round?

Answer: B —

The path is parallel to each side at 1 m (straight parts totalling the perimeter ), joined at each vertex by a circular arc of radius 1.

The arcs' angles are the exterior angles of the triangle, which add to , so together they form one full circle of length .

Total m.

Q28 ₹1 lakh split across schemes at 10%, 8%, 12% compounded annually; A = ₹30,000; first-year interest ₹10,600. Second-year interest?

Answer: B —

11748

Let . First-year interest: .

.

Second year, interest is on the year-1 amounts:

  • A:
  • B:
  • C:

Total .

Q29 f(x) = a²x² + 2bx + c with a ≠ 0 and real b, c. Which is true about maxima/minima?

Answer: B —

f(x) has a minimum and no maximum

The leading coefficient (since ), so the graph is an upward parabola.

It has a minimum at and grows without bound, so there is no maximum.

Q30 Area of the triangle formed by y = 0, 12x − 5y = 0 and 3x + 4y = 7?

Answer: B —

Vertices:

  • and :
  • and :
  • in :

Base on the x-axis , height . Area .

Q31 Area of a regular octagon inscribed in a circle of radius 1?

Answer: A —

Joining the centre to the vertices gives 8 congruent triangles, each with two sides 1 and included angle .

Area .

Q32 Swimmers start from opposite ends; one length takes 10 min and 15 min. Swimming back and forth for 80 minutes, how many times do they meet?

Answer: A —

7

Take the pool length as 30 units: Ankit's speed is 3 units/min, Bipul's 2 units/min.

First meeting: they close 30 units at 5 units/min, so they meet at min.

Later meetings: after each meeting they must together cover units before the next head-on meeting, which takes min. Meetings: .

Check : Ankit has covered 90 units (at the far end), Bipul 60 units (back at his start, the same far end), so they are together. The next would be at .

They never overtake each other at any other time, so they meet 7 times.

Q33 In a GP the sum of the first 5 terms equals the sum of the first 7; sum of 9 terms is 24. Find the 4th term.

Answer: B —

-24

(since ).

With the terms are , so .

.

Q34 Set of x satisfying log base (x + 1/x) of [log₂((x−1)/(x+2))] > 0.

Answer: D —

Null set

Base: requires , and then , so the base is always greater than 1.

With base , the inequality means , i.e. .

For , , so , which contradicts .

(Also, for we always have , so the inner log is negative and the outer log is not even defined.)

No works: null set.

Q35 S₁ = {100, 105, 110, …}, S₂ = {100, 95, 90, …}. Find Σ from k=1 to 20 of aₖbₖ.

Answer: B —

138250

, , so .

, so the sum .

Q36 A (hit prob 0.4) and B (0.6) shoot alternately, A first. Probability that A hits before B?

Answer: B —

A wins on his 1st, 2nd, 3rd … shot, each round both missing first:

(Miss probabilities: A , B .)

Q37 Which number is divisible by 3¹⁰ + 2?

Answer: D —

Let . Then , which is divisible by .

The others fail, since :

  • , , — all non-zero remainders, as is far larger.
Q38 n(A−B), n(A∩B), n(B−A) are in AP and n(A∪B) = 18. Find n(A) + n(B).

Answer: A —

24

Let the three disjoint parts be . Their total is .

.

Q39 Integers greater than 5000, divisible by 5, formed from digits 1, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9 without repetition. How many?

Answer: A —

276

Divisible by 5 means the last digit is 5 (no 0 available). The other digits come from .

  • 4-digit (must exceed 5000): first digit from : 3 ways; middle two from the remaining 4: →
  • 5-digit: any 4 of the 5 digits in order:
  • 6-digit: all 5 digits arranged:

Total .

Q40 Remainder when 11¹⁰¹¹ + 1011¹¹ is divided by 9?

Answer: B —

8

  • , and . , so .
  • has digit sum 3, so , and is divisible by 9, so .

Remainder .

Q41 Which month had the highest percentage decline in Apparel sales versus the previous month?

Answer: D —

October

Apparel month-on-month declines (sales in ₹ lakh):

  • March: ,
  • June: ,
  • October: ,
  • December: ,

(May also falls, by about 3.5%.) Largest decline: October.

Q42 For which categories did returns (as % of sales) rise over three consecutive months?

Answer: C —

Both Apparel and Footwear

Look for three consecutive months with rising return percentages:

  • Apparel: Jan 13% → Feb 16% → Mar 20% ✓
  • Footwear: Oct 8% → Nov 9% → Dec 10% ✓
  • Electronics: 2, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 4, 2, 5, 2, 4, 1 — every rise is followed immediately by a fall ✗

Answer: both Apparel and Footwear.

Q43 Percentage increase in Footwear net sales from May to June?

Answer: A —

62.58 percent

Net sales = sales × (1 − return %).

  • May:
  • June:

Increase .

Q44 Among January, April, December, August, in which month was Apparel's share of total monthly sales highest?

Answer: B —

April

Apparel ÷ (Apparel + Footwear + Electronics):

  • January:
  • April:
  • August:
  • December:

Highest: April (just ahead of January).

Q45 Among September, July, June, March, in which month was the value of Footwear returned highest?

Answer: B —

July

Value returned = Footwear sales × return %:

  • September:
  • July:
  • June:
  • March:

Highest: July (same rate as September, slightly higher sales).

Verbal Ability

Q46 The writer implies that …

Answer: D —

older forms of media will regain users because of its controls.

The third paragraph says unfiltered content can push users away from social media towards legacy forms that have better moderation. That is option D.

  • A: the writer suggests the opposite — unmoderated content can drive users away.
  • B: the passage calls informed choice social media's *weakness* (Achilles' heel), not users' inability to fact-check its strength.
  • C: "never be discarded" contradicts the idea that users may move to legacy media.
Q47 The writer argues that social media …

Answer: B —

has become the preferred way to access entertainment.

Paragraph two calls social media the connective tissue for mass consumption of entertainment, i.e. the main route through which people reach it.

  • A: lawmakers "are unlikely to give social media a free run" and protections already exist, so it is not unaffected.
  • C: the writer does not credit its success to publishing anything; unfiltered content is shown as a risk.
  • D: the writer says mediums *must* adapt (through moderation), not that social media cannot.
Q48 The writer's conclusion is that information available on social media is linked to …

Answer: D —

the policies of the governments in power.

The passage frames Meta's content changes as a response to the political tide turning in Washington, with Washington leaning on foreign governments and Republicans pulling US platforms rightwards. What appears on social media follows whoever holds power.

  • A: the writer argues for moderation, not deregulation.
  • B: the conclusion states moderation, not free speech, is the adaptation mechanism.
  • C: lawmakers worldwide are shown putting protections against misinformation in place, not backing free speech.
Q49 Social media has succeeded in …

Answer: D —

controlling other media that depend on it.

The passage says social media now has enough control over all other forms of media, and alternative platforms are reworking how they engage with it. So it controls media that depend on it.

  • A: technology (synthetic content) is shown helping social media, not being ignored.
  • B: community review is "not a significant improvement" over fact-checking.
  • C: it is the connective tissue *linking* other media, not independent of them.
Q50 Technologies are enabling social media to …

Answer: A —

enlarge its sphere of influence and persuasion.

Technologies drive social media's advantage further through synthetic content targeted precisely at its audience. Wider reach plus precise targeting means more influence and persuasion.

  • B, C: the passage does not say algorithms cannot control content, or that social media is "accepting" trends.
  • D: it is *other* platforms that rework their engagement with social media, not social media adjusting towards competitors.
Q51 The inherent downside associated with social media is that it …

Answer: C —

creates and spreads much innate and acquired prejudice.

The first paragraph calls this "the nature of the social media beast, designed to amplify bias". An inherent design that amplifies bias matches C.

  • A: the digital divide is never mentioned.
  • B: "unremitting expansion of freedom of expression" is not presented as its inherent flaw; the writer discounts free speech as the answer.
  • D: amplifying bias is the opposite of reinforcing objectivity.
Q52 How can consumption be made more satisfying?

Answer: B —

By understanding the connection between production and consumption.

The passage ends by saying consumption feels like a miracle because commodities are divorced from the social processes that produce them. Reconnecting consumption with production removes the magical expectation that causes disappointment.

  • A: banning commercials is an extreme step the passage never proposes.
  • C: believing in miraculous change is exactly the problem.
  • D: colonialism and oppression are not discussed.
Q53 Which of the following is an argument made by Baudrillard?

Answer: A —

Consumers value signs more than the real.

Baudrillard argues consumers have replaced 'real' happiness with 'signs' of happiness. That is option A.

  • B: commercials present goods as miracles, but unhappiness is attributed to heightened expectations, not placed "at the heart" on ads.
  • C: consumption is *experienced* as magical; he does not say production and consumption are magical.
  • D: coping with colonial inequality is not his point; the myth is an analogy.
Q54 How does Baudrillard engage with the cargo myth?

Answer: B —

He uses it as a metaphor to critique modern consumption.

The cargo myth "holds an important analogy" for how consumers set out sham signs and wait for happiness to arrive — a critique of modern consumption.

  • A: he shows consumption fails to deliver happiness, not that it is a blessing.
  • C: the myth is not used to describe suffering.
  • D: "more serious objects" is never suggested.
Q55 Why are consumers unhappy with commodities they have just bought?

Answer: A —

Because they have exaggerated expectations of commodities.

The passage says consumers should blame their heightened expectations for their lack of happiness, but blame the commodity instead.

  • B: commercials over-hype goods; lack of hype is the reverse.
  • C: the "Law of Diminishing Marginal Commodities" is invented and not mentioned.
  • D: they think a newer version would be better, but the root cause given is expectation, not functionality.
Q56 What is Baudrillard's position on total happiness?

Answer: A —

It is perpetually delayed.

Replacing real happiness with signs results in "the endless deferment" of total happiness — it is perpetually delayed.

  • B: consumers already wait (for the next version) and happiness still never comes.
  • C, D: production-over-consumption priorities and ethical consumption are not discussed as routes to total happiness.
Q57 What is Baudrillard's position on consumption?

Answer: D —

It is an irrational process.

Modern consumers view consumption in the same magical way the Melanesians viewed aeroplanes, and expect happiness from sham signs. That is magical, irrational thinking.

  • A: it is not driven by practical utility but by signs of happiness.
  • B: tempting because the passage opens by saying commodities are not *inherently* negative, but that is about objects; the process of consumption is critiqued.
  • C: equality is not discussed.
Q58 Deepak is unpleasant, but we all ___ because his sister is a close friend.

Answer: C —

put up with him

"Put up with" means tolerate — we tolerate an unpleasant person for his sister's sake.

  • A: "put him down" means insult or belittle.
  • B: "put him aside" means set aside, which does not fit a person here.
  • D: "put along with" is not an idiom.
Q59 We hope the new policies will ___ a period of economic growth.

Answer: A —

usher in

"Usher in" means to begin or introduce a new period — policies ushering in growth.

  • B: "set in" is intransitive and usually used for something unwelcome (winter, decay).
  • C: "turn up" means appear or increase.
  • D: "set forth" means state or begin a journey.
Q60 Having inherited jewellery of unknown worth, she decided ___.

Answer: C —

to have it appraised

To appraise is to assess the value of something, which is what you do with jewellery of unknown worth.

  • D: "apprised" means informed — a confusable.
  • B: "appreciated" means gained in value or valued emotionally, not assessed.
  • A: "get an approval" does not tell her its worth.
Q61 Deer crossing the road, standing in it, or else ___; as if they cannot hear engines.

Answer: D —

bounding across the road

The list describes deer moving over the road surface; "bounding across the road" (leaping across) fits naturally.

  • A, B: deer cannot jump or forage *under/beneath* the road.
  • C: "staggering with the road" is not meaningful English.
Q62 People wondered how the travel vlogger could travel all year and ___.

Answer: A —

manage his itinerant life style

Itinerant (adjective) means travelling from place to place — exactly a travel vlogger's lifestyle.

  • B: "itinerary" is a noun (a travel plan) and cannot describe a lifestyle.
  • C: "iterative" means repeating steps.
  • D: "manage his itinerary in his life style" is wordy and changes the meaning.
Q63 Renewable energy is key to fighting climate change, but it is not a ___, as conservation matters equally.

Answer: D —

silver bullet

A silver bullet is a single, complete solution to a hard problem. Renewables alone are not enough, since conservation is also needed.

  • A: "dead ringer" means an exact look-alike.
  • B: "silver lining" is a hopeful side of a bad situation.
  • C: "red herring" is a misleading distraction — renewables are called a key solution, not a distraction.
Q64 Fired labourers broke in and destroyed machinery; rather than solving their problems, they ___.

Answer: A —

exacerbated the situation

Vandalism makes matters worse; exacerbate means worsen.

  • B: "extended their troubles" is unidiomatic.
  • C: "exaggerated their hardships" means overstated them, which they did not do.
  • D: "extenuated" means made less serious — the opposite.
Q65 Correct the underlined part: DNA double helix 'regarded to be one of the most significant scientific discovery'.

Answer: B —

regarded as one of the most significant scientific discoveries

Two errors: the idiom is regarded as, and "one of the …" takes a plural noun (discoveries). Only B fixes both.

  • A: "regarded for being" is wrong.
  • C: "regarded like" is wrong and keeps the singular "discovery".
  • D: "regarded being" drops the needed "as".
Q66 Correct 'the damage to the car was neglectful'.

Answer: A —

was negligible

Negligible means so small it can be ignored — right for slight damage (hence "thank goodness").

  • D: "negligent" and the original "neglectful" mean careless; they describe people, not damage.
  • B: "neglecting" is a verb form.
  • C: "neglectable" is non-standard.
Q67 Correct 'the new policy aims to increase efficiency, reducing costs, and enhancing employee satisfaction'.

Answer: D —

increase efficiency, reduce costs, and enhance employee satisfaction

Items after "aims to" must be parallel: to increase, (to) reduce, (to) enhance. Only D keeps all three as bare verbs.

  • A: mixes increase / reducing / enhanced.
  • B: gerunds after "aims to" are ungrammatical, and "reducing of costs" is awkward.
  • C: mixes reduce / enhancing and adds needless "the".
Q68 Correct 'If the President knew that his allies would let him down so suddenly, he would have handled them …'.

Answer: B —

Had the President known that his allies would let him down

The result clause "would have handled" is a past unreal (third) conditional, which needs a past perfect condition: "If he had known", or inverted, "Had the President known".

  • A: "Had the President knowledge" is archaic and unidiomatic.
  • C: "could know beforehand" does not form the third conditional.
  • D: "knew … can" mismatches tenses.
Q69 Correct 'I had my brother to give food to my dog twice a day'.

Answer: A —

had my brother feed my dog

The causative have + person + bare infinitive: "had my brother feed my dog".

  • D: "to feed" wrongly adds "to" (same error as the original).
  • B: "giving" changes it to a continuous sense.
  • C: "who fed" makes it a relative clause and loses the causative meaning.
Q70 Fill the gap in the paragraph on BMI causing under- and over-diagnosis of obesity.

Answer: D —

This is because BMI does not provide a reliable picture of health, nor any direct measure of fat.

The gap follows the claim that BMI causes both under- and over-diagnosis and precedes details (fat distribution, true health). D explains *why* ("This is because …") and its two parts are expanded by the next sentences.

  • A: says BMI can pinpoint the cause, contradicting the paragraph.
  • B: social media misinformation is off-topic.
  • C: praises BMI's accuracy, contradicting the argument.
Q71 Concluding sentence for the paragraph on a Japanese island using cow manure to produce hydrogen.

Answer: C —

This is an exemplary way of creating a sustainable source of energy using innovative technology

The paragraph describes turning manure methane into hydrogen that powers a zoo. C sums this up as sustainable energy from innovative technology.

  • A: shifts to advice for India, which the paragraph gives no basis for.
  • B: a flippant reading (one animal powering others) that misses the point about energy.
  • D: "always used technology to help animals" is an unsupported generalisation and misreads the aim.
Q72 Fill the gap: losing a language is not merely losing communication … so when a language dies, a way of thinking dies.

Answer: C —

Languages exist not only for the purposes of practical communication; they convey a linguistic community's entire mindset and its culture

The gap must connect "not merely a mode of communication" to the conclusion "a way of thinking dies". C says language carries a community's mindset and culture, which justifies the "So".

  • A: revival movements do not lead to "a way of thinking dies".
  • B: whether endangered languages look healthy is a different point.
  • D: natural change over time does not explain why loss kills a way of thinking.
Q73 Fill the gap in the paragraph on India's record heat, climate risk, heatstroke cases and power demand.

Answer: D —

The increasing heat stress remains a major challenge, affecting public health and economic productivity

After "twenty-three States are heatwave-prone", the paragraph gives health effects (heatstroke cases, deaths) and economic effects (reservoirs, power demand). D introduces exactly these two strands.

  • A: contradicts the study's picture of widespread risk and is not what follows.
  • B: the monsoon is never taken up afterwards.
  • C: compensation is not mentioned and breaks the flow to heatstroke data.
Q74 Art can be ___ as it helps process feelings, reduce stress, and ___ self-awareness.

Answer: D —

therapeutic; enhance

Processing feelings and reducing stress are healing effects, so art is therapeutic, and it would enhance (improve) self-awareness.

  • A: "decrease" self-awareness is negative, clashing with the benefits listed.
  • B: "disturb" is negative, and "acceptable" is too weak.
  • C: "avoidable" and "mitigate" contradict the positive tone.
Q75 Astronauts staying an ___ period at the ISS showed remarkable ___ endurance and mental ___.

Answer: D —

extended; physical; resilience

"An extended period" is the natural collocation; "physical endurance" pairs with "mental resilience", both positive to match "remarkable".

  • A: "dysfunctional endurance" contradicts "remarkable".
  • B: "explicit period" makes no sense; "mental integrity" is odd.
  • C: "expanded period" and "stern endurance" are unidiomatic.
Q76 Curcumin, an ___ in turmeric, helps reduce ___, but very high doses can ___ headache and nausea.

Answer: D —

ingredient; inflammation; induce

Curcumin is an ingredient (compound) of turmeric known for reducing inflammation, and side effects are induced (brought on).

  • A: curcumin is not an enzyme; you do not "infuse" a headache.
  • B: it is not an alkali; "promote headache" is odd.
  • C: "alchemy" is not a substance.
Q77 Personhood is ___ on more than genetic material; it arises with structural ___ of that material, permitting capacities like ___, thought and moral agency.

Answer: D —

premised; organisation; consciousness

"Premised on" (based on) fits the preposition; capacities emerge from the larger-scale structural organisation of genetic material; and consciousness belongs in a list with thought and moral agency.

  • A: "disorganisation" and "deconstruction" cannot give rise to capacities.
  • B: "interdependent on" is wrong usage; "differentiation" is not a capacity like thought.
  • C: "calibration" is not a mental capacity; "structural distribution" is weak.
Q78 Chronic stress can ___ immunity and ___ well-being, so practitioners recommend mindfulness and sleep to ___ these effects.

Answer: B —

compromise; impair; counter

Stress compromises (weakens) the immune system, impairs well-being, and good habits counter the negative effects. All three fit the logic.

  • A: stress does not "elevate" well-being, and practices do not "impede" negative effects in this sense.
  • C: "improve" well-being contradicts the negative sense.
  • D: "preserve" well-being also contradicts it.
Q79 Influencers ___ a curated persona, which can ___ unrealistic standards and ___ negative self-comparisons.

Answer: B —

maintain; generate; trigger

One maintains an online persona; it generates unrealistic standards; and it triggers negative self-comparisons. Each word collocates correctly.

  • A: one does not "endorse" one's own persona (you endorse products or views).
  • C: "advocate a persona" is wrong usage.
  • D: "profess a persona" is wrong, "inspire" carries a positive sense, and "release self-comparisons" is unidiomatic.
Q80 In the conversation, "dynamism" most closely refers to …

Answer: B —

the rapid and frequent changes in leadership and market position within an industry.

Bradley measures dynamism with the "shuffle rate": how much the bottom moves to the top. That means frequent changes in market position and leadership.

  • A: slow, gradual growth is the opposite.
  • C, D: never-changing practices and stability describe the traditional "muggle" industries.
Q81 The term "arenas of competition" refers to …

Answer: D —

broad categories of industries where companies engage in competitive activities.

Rahilly introduces arenas as "the industries that will matter most", and Bradley calls them new "competitive sectors". They are industry categories.

  • A: arenas are sectors, not individual companies.
  • B: regulation is not discussed.
  • C: they are not physical locations.
Q82 "Muggles" refers to industries that …

Answer: C —

operate under traditional economic principles.

Bradley says the muggles play by a more traditional set of economic rules.

  • A, B, D: rapid change, high market-cap growth and R&D intensity are traits of the "wizard" industries.
Q83 Which does "shuffle rate" NOT measure?

Answer: C —

Overall profitability of traditional industries.

The shuffle rate measures how much the bottom moves to the top — changes in rank within an industry. Profit is discussed separately as economic profit.

  • A (volatility of leadership), B (churn within the arena) and D (relative change within an industry) all describe that reshuffling, so they *are* measured.
Q84 "Wizard" industries are characterized by …

Answer: B —

a higher concentration of economic profit and research and development.

Bradley says economic profit is in the wizard industries and they are two times more R&D intensive.

  • A: they capture 45% of market-cap growth, so growth is faster, not slower.
  • C: traditional rules belong to muggles.
  • D: R&D is higher, not lower.
Q85 Which best summarises the main idea of the conversation?

Answer: B —

Newer, dynamic industries, termed "wizards," are experiencing significantly greater growth and profit compared to traditional industries.

The whole exchange contrasts wizard industries (about 10% of industries taking 45% of market-cap growth, higher shuffle rate, most economic profit) with traditional muggles. B captures this.

  • A, C: both reverse the finding.
  • D: the Harry Potter terms are a nickname for economic differences, not about magic.
Q86 Para-jumble (5 sentences) on the Indus Valley Civilisation: planned cities, Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, trade, decline.

Answer: 52134

  • 5 opens: it names the Indus Valley Civilisation and introduces it as an early urban society.
  • 2 follows: "this ancient culture" refers back to it and introduces planned cities and engineering.
  • 1: "this architectural prowess" needs 2, and gives Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro as examples.
  • 3: "Economically" moves from architecture to trade and agriculture.
  • 4 closes: "Despite its impressive achievements" sums up and turns to the civilisation's decline.

Order: 52134.

Q87 Para-jumble (5 sentences) on Toyota Research Institute's cooking robots trained with AI.

Answer: 24513

  • 2 opens: it sets the scene (robots cooking at the Toyota lab; robot chefs are nothing new).
  • 4: "But these robots are more proficient" contrasts with "nothing special".
  • 5: "The difference is" explains what makes them special — taught only a basic set of skills.
  • 1: "improved upon those skills" refers to the basic skills in 5.
  • 3 closes: "Despite their extraordinary culinary capabilities" sums up and says they are not headed for catering.

Order: 24513.

Q88 Para-jumble (4 sentences) on India's climate-disaster ranking and the developed–developing responsibility debate.

Answer: 2143

  • 2 opens: the specific fact that India was the sixth worst-affected country (1993–2022).
  • 1: widens the view — seven of the ten worst-affected countries "(including India)" are low- and middle-income.
  • 4: "This reinforces" draws the developing world's argument from that pattern.
  • 3 closes: "meanwhile" gives the rich nations' counter-position.

Order: 2143.

Q89 Para-jumble (4 sentences) on creativity coming from ordinary daily moments.

Answer: 2431

  • 2 opens: it defines creativity.
  • 4: states the common misconception that creativity needs big ideas or adventures.
  • 3: "In fact" corrects it — inspiration comes from small daily details (examples given).
  • 1 closes: "these moments" refers to 3's examples and concludes that creativity is finding the special in the ordinary.

Order: 2431.

Q90 Para-jumble (4 sentences) on plant roots, drought and abscisic acid.

Answer: 3142

  • 3 opens: the general point that plants use roots to seek water.
  • 1: the problem — in drought, water is only in deeper subsoil.
  • 4: "these challenging conditions" refers to the drought in 1 and introduces abscisic acid.
  • 2 closes: "the acid" refers back to 4, and the new study explains how it steers roots deeper.

Order: 3142.

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About the IPMAT Indore exam pattern

IPMAT Indore is conducted by IIM Indore. The format below is the standard pattern — check the official notification for the current year's exact rules before you sit the exam.

SectionsQuant (MCQ) · Quant (Short Answer) · Verbal Ability
Questions15 + 30 + 45 = 90
Duration120 minutes
Marking+4 / −1 (no negative marking on Short Answer)
Full IPMAT Indore guide — syllabus, prep plan & FAQs →