IPMAT Indore 2023 · Question Paper & Solutions
IIM Indore
Official question paper · For practice and educational use only. On mobile, the PDF may open in your default reader.
Worked solutions — IPMAT Indore 2023
Every question, solved step by step. Each answer is checked against the official key printed with the paper — 88 of 90 solutions reach it. Try each question before opening it.
1 answer corrects the official key, where the working settles it. The key's own answer is shown alongside each one.
The other 1 question is flagged. The official key is always shown; the flag says what the problem is.
- 1 no option is correct — the correct answer is not among the printed options
Quantitative Ability (Short Answer)
Q1 If f(1) = 1 and f(n) = 3n − f(n−1) for n > 1, find f(2023).
Answer: 3034
From the rule, . Compute a few values: .
Subtracting consecutive relations: , so odd-indexed terms rise by 3 each step:
For , , so .
Q2 Amisha (20 days alone) works 4 days, is sick 4 days, then at half rate finishes in 12 days with a co-worker. Co-worker's solo time?
Answer: 24
Amisha's rate is per day. In 4 days she does ; remaining work .
From day 9, for 12 days she works at per day: .
The co-worker does of the task in 12 days, so alone he needs days.
Q3 f(n) = 1+2+…+(n+1) and g(n) = Σ 1/f(k) for k = 1…n. Least n with g(n) > 99/100?
Answer: 199
, so
The sum telescopes: .
.
Least value: .
Q4 Two-candidate election: 15% didn't vote, 50 invalid votes, winner got 44% of the list and won by 200. Voters on the list?
Answer: 5000
Let the list have voters. Votes cast ; valid votes .
Winner , loser . Valid votes are shared by the two:
Q5 Number of positive integer solutions of 21 ≤ a + b + c ≤ 25.
Answer: 1160
For a fixed sum , the number of positive integer solutions of is .
Q6 Three consecutive coefficients in the expansion of (x + y)^n are in the ratio 1 : 9 : 63. Find n.
Answer: 39
Let the coefficients be .
So , and .
Q7 Polynomial 4x¹⁰ − x⁹ + … + cx⁶ + … + 6x − 2 leaves remainder 2 when divided by x−1. Find c+6.
Answer: 5
By the remainder theorem the remainder is :
, so .
Q8 Product of the roots of log₂(2^{(log₂x)²}) − 5 log₂x + 6 = 0.
Answer: 32
. Let :
So or , and the product of the roots is .
Q9 Remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! + … + 95! is divided by 15.
Answer: 3
For , contains both 3 and 5, so it is divisible by 15.
Only matters, and .
Remainder .
Q10 Four-gear car (v₄ = 5v₁, v₃ = 2v₂) takes 585 min with 25 km per gear. Time for 4, 4, 32, 60 km?
Answer: 312
Let the first and second gear speeds be . Then , and since second gear takes twice as long as third over the same distance, .
Equal distances (25 km each):
New distances:
Notice , so the required time is minutes. (Two unknowns, but only this combination is needed.)
Q11 Positive integers with a+b+c+d = 2023, a:b = 2:5 and c:d = 5:2. Find the maximum of a+c.
Answer: 1442
Write with positive integers.
.
, which is largest when is largest: .
.
Q12 A = (−2, 0), B = (2, 0). Count points C on x² + y² = 4 for which triangle ABC has integer area.
Answer: 14
and the height from is , so area . On the circle, , so area .
- Area 0 means or : no triangle, excluded.
- Area 1, 2, 3: . Each gives 4 points (two values of , two of ): .
- Area 4: , i.e. : 2 points.
Total .
Q13 Length of the segment joining the two intersection points of y = 4970 − |x| and y = x².
Answer: 140
For : .
By symmetry the other point is at ; both have . The segment is horizontal, with length .
Q14 Ankita deposits yearly income (10,000, rising by 10,000) at year-end at simple interest starting 0.5%, rising 0.5% yearly. Total interest in five years?
Answer: 2500
Deposits are made at the end of each year; interest counts until the end of year 5.
- End of year 1: 10,000 at 0.5% for 4 years = 200
- End of year 2: 20,000 at 1% for 3 years = 600
- End of year 3: 30,000 at 1.5% for 2 years = 900
- End of year 4: 40,000 at 2% for 1 year = 800
- End of year 5: 50,000 at 2.5% for 0 years = 0
Total interest .
Q15 Four equal groups; players meet own group once and the other three groups 2, 3, 4 times. Over 1000 matches: minimum players per group?
Answer: 8
Let each group have players.
Within groups: matches.
Between groups: there are 6 pairs of groups, and every group must see the multiplicities 2, 3 and 4 exactly once. This means splitting the 6 pairs into three "matchings" of 2 pairs each (e.g. G1–G2 and G3–G4 at 2 times, G1–G3 and G2–G4 at 3, G1–G4 and G2–G3 at 4). Each pair of groups has player pairs:
Total .
- :
- :
Minimum .
Quantitative Ability (MCQ)
Q16 If log_{cos x}(sin x) + log_{sin x}(cos x) = 2, find x.
Answer: A — , an integer
Let . Then , and
So . Both must be valid log bases/arguments: positive and not equal to 1. That forces into the first quadrant, i.e. plus full turns.
.
Option B () also includes , where , so the logarithms are undefined.
Q17 Walk 32 m east, turn right 16 m, turn right 8 m, and so on forever. Final distance from the start?
Answer: B — meters
Right turns cycle E → S → W → N, and each leg is half the previous one.
East–west:
North–south:
Q18 What does x² + y² − 2x − 4y + 5 = 0 represent?
Answer: C — a point
Complete the squares:
A sum of squares is zero only when both are zero, so the only solution is . It is a single point (a circle of radius 0).
Q19 A ₹10 lakh gold ball is melted into beads of one-fifth the radius, sold at 20% discount for 20% total profit. List price per bead?
Answer: A — 12000
Volume scales as : each bead has of the volume, so there are 125 beads.
Total selling price . Per bead: .
Selling price is 80% of list price: .
Q20 A helicopter flies the four 100 km sides of a square at 100, 200, 300, 400 km/h. Average speed?
Answer: C — 192 kmph
Total distance km.
Total time h.
Average speed km/h.
Q21 Probability that a random positive divisor of 10^2023 is a multiple of 10^2001.
Answer: D —
. Its divisors are with : divisors.
A multiple of needs : choices each, so divisors.
Q22 Triangle ABC with AB:BC:CA = 2:4:3; D is midpoint of BC, AM the altitude. Find BM : AD.
Answer: A —
Take .
BM (projection of on ): .
AD (median, Apollonius): , so .
Q23 A = [[1, 2], [3, a]] and det(A³ − 3A² − 5A) = 0. One possible value of a?
Answer: C — 6
, so the determinant is .
, which is 0 when . So works.
Check the other options with Cayley–Hamilton, :
- : , determinant ; and . Not zero.
- : , determinant ; . Not zero.
- : , determinant . Not zero.
So .
Q24 Which pair of lines are both tangents to x² + y² − 6x + 4y − 12 = 0?
Answer: B —
Centre , radius .
Every option has lines . Tangency needs distance from the centre :
So the tangents are and .
Q25 a₁, a₂, a₃ distinct, in GP; a₁x²+2a₂x+a₃ = 0 and b₁x²+2b₂x+b₃ = 0 share a root. What must hold?
Answer: B — are in arithmetic progression
(The stem's "" is a typo for .)
Since , the first equation has discriminant , so its only root is . This must satisfy the second equation:
Use in the first term, then divide by :
So are in AP.
Q26 A rabbit climbs a 10-step staircase one or two steps at a time. Number of ways to reach the top?
Answer: D — 89
Let be the number of ways to reach step . The last move is 1 or 2 steps, so with .
.
Q27 Minimum number of fair-coin tosses so that P(at least one head) exceeds 0.8.
Answer: D — 3
.
: (not enough). : .
Minimum .
Q28 Ways to place 8 rooks on an 8 × 8 board with no two in the same row or column.
Answer: C — 8!
Place one rook per row. Row 1 has 8 column choices, row 2 has 7 remaining, and so on:
Q29 a, b, c > 1, n > 0, n ≠ 1, with log_n(log₂a) = 1, log_n(log₂b) = 2, log_n(log₂c) = 3. Which relation holds?
Answer: B —
, so .
Then , so and
Checks on the others with (): A gives ; C gives ; D gives .
Q30 CI minus SI for 3 years at 10% p.a. is ₹527. Find the principal.
Answer: C — 17000
and .
.
Q31 The harmonic mean of the roots of (5 + √2)x² − bx + 8 + 2√5 = 0 is 4. Find b.
Answer: D —
For roots : .
and , so
Q32 For natural n, sum of all x satisfying 2[x] = x + n{x}, where [x] is the floor and {x} the fractional part.
Answer: C —
Write with and . Then
is an integer and , so and for .
. Sum:
Q33 If (a+b)/(b+c) = (c+d)/(d+a), which statement is always true? Key corrected
Answer: C — , or
Cross-multiply: .
So the condition means exactly: or , which is option C.
The official key gives D ( and ). That is sufficient but not necessary. Counterexample: gives , yet . So D is not "always true" under the given condition.
The condition reduces to (a − c)(a + b + c + d) = 0, which is option C. The official key's "a = c and b = d" is sufficient but not necessary: a = c = 1, b = 2, d = 3 satisfies the condition with b ≠ d.
Q34 Solve x²(x+1) / ((x−1)(2x+1)³) > 0.
Answer: A —
for (and gives 0, not ). has the same sign as . So we need
Critical points :
- :
- : ✓
- :
- : ✓
is not in either interval anyway. Solution: .
Q35 Five players, round robin, no draws, 1 point per win. Which score sequence is impossible?
Answer: C — 4, 4, 1, 1, 0
There are games, so scores must add to 10. All four options do.
In C, two players have 4 points, meaning each won all 4 games. But they played each other, and only one can win that game. So C is impossible.
The others are achievable, e.g. B: arrange players in a circle and let each beat the next two.
Q36 If cos α + cos β = 1, find the maximum of sin α − sin β.
Answer: D —
Let . Square and add to :
So , i.e. .
It is attained at : and .
Q37 P(x) leaves remainder 2 on division by x−1 and 1 by x−2. Remainder on division by (x−1)(x−2)?
Answer: A —
The remainder is linear, , with and .
.
.
Q38 120 students: 80 Science, 40 Commerce; 70 support Mumbai Indians. Number of Science MI supporters?
Answer: A — 30 or more
At most all 40 Commerce students support MI, so at least MI supporters are Science students. At most can be (all MI fans being Science students is allowed, since ).
Range: to , i.e. 30 or more. B, C and D all allow values below 30.
Q39 The unit digit of p³ is 4 (p a positive integer). Possible unit digits of (p + 3)³? No option is correct
Official key: A — 1, 3
Cube unit digits by last digit: .
The only last digit whose cube ends in 4 is 4, so ends in 4.
Then ends in 7, and ends in 3. The only possible unit digit is 3.
Option A (1, 3) is the only option that contains 3, which is why the key picks it. But a unit digit of 1 cannot occur.
p must end in 4, so p + 3 ends in 7 and (p+3)³ ends in 3. Only the unit digit 3 is possible, and every option pads it with a second digit that cannot occur.
Q40 Probability that a random three-digit number is divisible by neither 3 nor 4.
Answer: D —
There are 900 three-digit numbers (100–999).
- Divisible by 3:
- Divisible by 4:
- Divisible by 12:
Divisible by 3 or 4: . Neither: .
.
Q41 Drug-organism caselet: drug D works on which organism(s)?
Answer: D — P and Q
Deduction for the caselet. Given: A works on R; B and C work on Q.
1. Wherever A works, B works, so B works on R. With Q, B already has 2 organisms: B = {Q, R}. So A can only work on Q or R.
2. C works on Q, so D works on Q.
3. P needs at least 2 drugs, and A and B can't work on P, so they must come from C, D, E. D and E can't share an organism, and C on P forces D on P. The only valid pair is P = {C, D}. So C = {P, Q} and D = {P, Q}.
4. E can't be on P (not chosen) or Q (D is there), so E = {R}.
5. Q already has B, C, D (maximum 3), so A is not on Q: A = {R}.
Final: P = {C, D}; Q = {B, C, D}; R = {A, B, E}. Every rule checks out.
D works on P and Q.
Q42 Drug-organism caselet: organism P can be treated with which drugs?
Answer: D — Only C and D
Deduction for the caselet. Given: A works on R; B and C work on Q.
1. Wherever A works, B works, so B works on R. With Q, B already has 2 organisms: B = {Q, R}. So A can only work on Q or R.
2. C works on Q, so D works on Q.
3. P needs at least 2 drugs, and A and B can't work on P, so they must come from C, D, E. D and E can't share an organism, and C on P forces D on P. The only valid pair is P = {C, D}. So C = {P, Q} and D = {P, Q}.
4. E can't be on P (not chosen) or Q (D is there), so E = {R}.
5. Q already has B, C, D (maximum 3), so A is not on Q: A = {R}.
Final: P = {C, D}; Q = {B, C, D}; R = {A, B, E}. Every rule checks out.
P is treated by only C and D. A and B can't reach P (A only works where B does, and B is already on Q and R). E can't join P because D is there.
Q43 Drug-organism caselet: organism R can be treated with which drugs?
Answer: B — A, B and E
Deduction for the caselet. Given: A works on R; B and C work on Q.
1. Wherever A works, B works, so B works on R. With Q, B already has 2 organisms: B = {Q, R}. So A can only work on Q or R.
2. C works on Q, so D works on Q.
3. P needs at least 2 drugs, and A and B can't work on P, so they must come from C, D, E. D and E can't share an organism, and C on P forces D on P. The only valid pair is P = {C, D}. So C = {P, Q} and D = {P, Q}.
4. E can't be on P (not chosen) or Q (D is there), so E = {R}.
5. Q already has B, C, D (maximum 3), so A is not on Q: A = {R}.
Final: P = {C, D}; Q = {B, C, D}; R = {A, B, E}. Every rule checks out.
R is treated by A, B and E.
Q44 Drug-organism caselet: drug E works on which organism(s)?
Answer: A — Only R
Deduction for the caselet. Given: A works on R; B and C work on Q.
1. Wherever A works, B works, so B works on R. With Q, B already has 2 organisms: B = {Q, R}. So A can only work on Q or R.
2. C works on Q, so D works on Q.
3. P needs at least 2 drugs, and A and B can't work on P, so they must come from C, D, E. D and E can't share an organism, and C on P forces D on P. The only valid pair is P = {C, D}. So C = {P, Q} and D = {P, Q}.
4. E can't be on P (not chosen) or Q (D is there), so E = {R}.
5. Q already has B, C, D (maximum 3), so A is not on Q: A = {R}.
Final: P = {C, D}; Q = {B, C, D}; R = {A, B, E}. Every rule checks out.
E works on only R.
Q45 Drug-organism caselet: which organism(s) can be treated with three of the five drugs?
Answer: D — Q and R
Deduction for the caselet. Given: A works on R; B and C work on Q.
1. Wherever A works, B works, so B works on R. With Q, B already has 2 organisms: B = {Q, R}. So A can only work on Q or R.
2. C works on Q, so D works on Q.
3. P needs at least 2 drugs, and A and B can't work on P, so they must come from C, D, E. D and E can't share an organism, and C on P forces D on P. The only valid pair is P = {C, D}. So C = {P, Q} and D = {P, Q}.
4. E can't be on P (not chosen) or Q (D is there), so E = {R}.
5. Q already has B, C, D (maximum 3), so A is not on Q: A = {R}.
Final: P = {C, D}; Q = {B, C, D}; R = {A, B, E}. Every rule checks out.
Q (B, C, D) and R (A, B, E) each have three drugs; P has two. Answer: Q and R.
Verbal Ability
Q46 Sleep passage: the objective of the passage is to…
Answer: C — advise the reader.
The passage first explains why sleep matters (hormones, cholesterol, diabetes, obesity). Then it ends with practical guidance: keep a fixed sleep schedule, put the phone away, use a dark, quiet room, read or listen to music. The science supports the advice, so the overall aim is to advise the reader.
- A: the content is mostly physiological, not psychological.
- B: nothing suggests disinformation.
- D is tempting, but the medical facts serve the advice. The passage is not a clinical briefing.
Q47 Sleep passage: which statement is NOT correct according to the passage?
Answer: B — Regular exercising and eating healthy food alone ensure fitness.
The opening paragraph says fitness is *usually assumed* to be exercise plus diet, but this "is not always the case": sleep also plays a crucial part. So B ("exercise and healthy food alone ensure fitness") contradicts the passage.
- A: supported (sleep loss lowers leptin and can lead to obesity).
- C: supported (relax body and mind before sleep).
- D: supported (irregular sleep can hamper health).
Q48 Sleep passage: being deprived of sleep can result in…
Answer: D — mental exhaustion.
The third paragraph says sleep deprivation leaves the brain exhausted. That is mental exhaustion.
- A: the passage says leptin stabilises metabolism. It never mentions "metabolism loss".
- B: no terminal illness is mentioned. Diabetes and cholesterol are lifestyle conditions.
- C is the opposite: sleep loss lowers the satiety hormone and raises hunger.
Q49 Sleep passage: the main focus of the passage is on the…
Answer: D — perils of insomnia and irregular sleep patterns.
Every paragraph ties back to sleep: poor sleep patterns, insomnia's effects, hormonal disruption, and how to fix sleep habits. The focus is the perils of insomnia and irregular sleep patterns.
- A (leptin/ghrelin), B (junk food) and C (cholesterol, diabetes) are each consequences mentioned along the way. None is the central theme.
Q50 Sleep passage: to remain physically fit one must…
Answer: D — maintain a set sleep pattern.
The passage says a definite sleeping pattern keeps the cycle of rest and activity going, and that fixed sleep and wake times encourage quality sleep. So: maintain a set sleep pattern.
- A: reading a book is offered as one optional aid ("one can always"), not a requirement.
- B: late-night snacking is shown as harmful.
- C: raised ghrelin is a harmful effect of sleep loss.
Q51 Sleep passage: how does sleep contribute to a person's well-being?
Answer: B — By helping the body replenish its resources.
The passage calls sleep a restorative process that helps body and mind repair and recharge. That matches helping the body replenish its resources.
- A: increased appetite is a result of sleep *loss*.
- C: the routine regularises sleep, not the other way round.
- D: muscle strength is never mentioned.
Q52 Apple passage: which statement is NOT true?
Answer: B — Regulatory restrictions were eased in 2023.
The passage says investment rules were relaxed in 2019, not 2023 (2023 is when the stores opened). So B is false.
- A: true (production of iPhone 14 began in India last year).
- C: consistent with the passage (Apple already makes 5–7% of its products in India; iPhone 14 is 5% of iPhone production).
- D: true (a lower-end iPhone was first made in India in 2017).
Q53 Apple passage: Apple's challenge while opening physical stores is to…
Answer: D — retain links with their partner sellers while drawing customers to their stores.
The passage says the real issue is drawing consumers to the flagship stores without alienating partner sellers. That is option D: keep links with partner sellers while drawing customers to its own stores.
- A and B describe pulling customers away from competitors or other sellers, which is the very alienation Apple wants to avoid.
- C (repackaged parallel products) is not mentioned.
Q54 Apple passage: India is now the focus of Apple's operations because…
Answer: C — it offers the benefit of a manufacturing base in addition to a market.
The passage links the store launch to India being a big market (second-largest for smartphones, growing premium segment). It also says India is rising fast as a manufacturing base. Both halves are option C: a manufacturing base as well as a market.
- A: ease of doing business is not compared across countries.
- B: the passage says second-largest *smartphone market*, not population.
- D is tempting, but the passage talks only about Apple's reliance on China, not American tech companies in general. It is also just one factor.
Q55 Apple passage: "draw people into Apple's ecosystem" means Apple seeks to…
Answer: B — bring customers into a network of related products which it offers.
An "ecosystem" here is Apple's connected range of devices and services. A customer drawn in tends to buy more Apple products. That is option B: a network of related products.
- A: innovative ways to sell phones misses the idea of linked products.
- C: market leadership is a different claim.
- D: aesthetic display is about the store, not the ecosystem.
Q56 Apple passage: the main point the passage makes is that Apple…
Answer: A — has realised the strategic importance of the Indian market.
The passage closes by saying Apple now sees India's premium market is growing and is getting serious about it. It also stresses India's rise as a manufacturing base. The central idea is that Apple has realised India's strategic importance.
- B contradicts the passage, which says the stores may not boost sales much.
- C is a side detail.
- D: Samsung appears only as a distant second in market share. No new strategy to compete is discussed.
Q57 Apple passage: the Apple retail stores in India will…
Answer: D — not materially impact sales of iPhones.
The passage says the stores won't change Apple's sales dramatically and might not raise sales, though they pull people into the ecosystem. So they will not materially impact iPhone sales.
- C (more customers and higher sales) is tempting but contradicts that point.
- A: competition is not discussed.
- B: the stores are described as a branding step, so they do affect Apple's image.
Q58 Idiom: nasty social-media comments by strangers made the actor ______.
Answer: A — ill at ease
Ill at ease is a standard idiom meaning uncomfortable or uneasy. It fits someone upset by hostile comments.
"Ill at heart", "ill and ache" and "ill in heart" are not English idioms.
Q59 It grieved me ______ my friend's serious illness.
Answer: D — to hear of
"It grieved me to hear of …" uses the infinitive after "it grieved me", and *hear of* means learn about news.
- A: "in hearing" is unidiomatic here.
- B, C: "regarding" after *hear* is redundant and awkward ("to hear regarding").
Q60 Arrogant Meena refuses to acknowledge Sunil because she feels he is a man ______.
Answer: B — of no importance
An arrogant, class-conscious person ignores someone she considers insignificant: a man of no importance.
- A and C contradict her snub.
- D: "of less importance" needs a comparison ("less than whom?") and is unidiomatic in this frame.
Q61 Brands tailoring pants for people with prosthetic legs: this is how they ______.
Answer: A — go the extra mile
Go the extra mile means make more effort than required, which fits designing clothes for prosthetic users.
The other options are distortions of the fixed idiom.
Q62 Big shots escape the law; it is the ______ who are more often caught and punished.
Answer: A — small fry
Small fry means unimportant people, the natural contrast to "big shots". It also takes the plural verb "are".
"Tiny shots" and "tiny fish" are not idioms. "Small fish" is sometimes used informally, but the standard fixed expression is "small fry".
Q63 Asked for a rough estimate of the project cost, ______ I would say thirty lakhs.
Answer: A — off-the-cuff
Off-the-cuff means spontaneously, without preparation, which suits a rough estimate.
- B: "off the mark" means inaccurate.
- C: "off-mike" means away from the microphone.
- D: "off the grid" means disconnected from public utilities or society.
Q64 The disappointing new car's good mileage is its only ______.
Answer: A — saving grace
A saving grace is the one redeeming quality of something otherwise poor.
- B: "saving face" means avoiding humiliation.
- C, D: "saving praise" and "saving case" are not idioms.
Q65 Grammar correction: 'buy a gift for whoever you are assigned'.
Answer: B — whomever you are assigned
The case of the pronoun is set by its role *inside* its own clause. In "you are assigned him" (a passive with a retained object), the pronoun is an object. So the objective form whomever is needed: "buy a gift for whomever you are assigned".
- A: "whom" loses the indefinite sense of "whichever person" and leaves no antecedent.
- C, D keep the subjective "who/whoever", the original error.
Q66 Grammar correction: 'she always insisted to pay for the meal'.
Answer: B — that she pay for the meal.
*Insist* does not take a to-infinitive. It takes either "insist on paying" or a *that*-clause with the subjunctive: "insisted that she pay for the meal".
- A: "that she had paid" changes the meaning (demanding something already done).
- C: "insisted on and paid for the meal" makes "the meal" the object of *insisted on*, which is unidiomatic and changes the sense.
- D: "will be paying" clashes with past-tense *insisted* and the habitual "always".
Q67 Grammar correction: 'If it had been him…, he would definitely accepted such an offer.'
Answer: B — have definitely accepted such an offer.
A third conditional (past unreal) takes "if + had + past participle" followed by "would have + past participle". The corrected form is "he would have definitely accepted such an offer".
- A doubles "have".
- C uses the base form "accept" after "have".
- D omits "have", the original error.
Q68 Grammar correction: 'The setting of a story effects the storys plot.'
Answer: D — affects the story’s plot.
Two errors. The verb meaning "influences" is affects ("effect" as a verb means *bring about*). The subject "setting" is singular, so it takes "affects". The possessive of the singular noun is story's.
- A: "affect" does not agree with the singular subject.
- B keeps "effects" and uses a plural possessive.
- C changes the meaning to "story plots".
Q69 Grammar correction: '…you realise that nothing much has changed, hasn't it?'
Answer: A — nothing much has changed, has it?
"Nothing" makes the clause negative, so the question tag must be positive and match the auxiliary *has*: "nothing much has changed, has it?"
- B: the auxiliary "would" doesn't match.
- C: a negative tag after a negative clause.
- D: "is changed" and "isn't it" are both wrong.
Q70 Choose the opening sentence for a paragraph about conflicts brewing over shared rivers and basins.
Answer: C — With water becoming increasingly scarce and development of new sources of water extremely costly, international water tensions are expected to rise
The next sentence says conflicts are *now* brewing over shared rivers, and the paragraph goes on to international strife. The opener must set up rising *international tension* over water. Option C does exactly that: scarcity plus costly new sources means international water tensions are expected to rise.
- A (the world undervalues water), B (water as the new oil) and D (fresh-water shortage) all talk about scarcity. None introduces the cross-border conflict the next sentence continues.
Q71 Lucknow Nawabs and European villas: fill the sentence before 'Villas, hence, provided an ideal substitute.'
Answer: D — The Nawabs of Lucknow fancied building palaces that resembled British ancestral homes
"Villas, hence, provided an ideal substitute" needs the blank to name something the Nawabs wanted but could not have. Option D gives that: they fancied palaces resembling British ancestral homes, and villas stood in for those. This also fits the following lines about European designs and the Northumberland country house used as a model.
- A describes the villa's later role and gives nothing for it to substitute for.
- B invents a reason (ease of construction) and would put "villas" before the substitute sentence.
- C explains the attraction but again gives no thing to be substituted.
Q72 Indian poetry in English began in urban Calcutta; fill the sentence before 'Then, gradually, it moved to other urban centres…'
Answer: B — In fact, poetry writing for the first fifty years was confined to a few families who were residents of Calcutta
The blank sits between "a largely urban phenomenon, centered in Calcutta" and "Then, gradually, it moved to other urban centres". It must continue the Calcutta point and describe an early phase that "then" changed. Option B does: for the first fifty years, poetry writing was confined to a few Calcutta families. It also anticipates the later point about poets coming from the upper classes.
- A and D invent British policies not suggested by the paragraph.
- C claims only the British could write poetry in English, which contradicts the paragraph about Indian poets.
Q73 Charles Correa avoided high-rise housing in urban planning; choose the concluding sentence.
Answer: B — He focused on low-rise dwelling solutions that emphasized the human scale and created a sense of community
The last sentence says Correa avoided high-rise solutions. The natural next step says what he did *instead*: low-rise dwellings emphasising human scale and community. This also echoes his "quasi-rural housing environments".
- A (climate), C (sensitivity to the urban poor) and D (early work mixing tradition and Modernism) are true-sounding facts about Correa, but none continues the high-rise point.
Q74 HR chief: company will not ___ on investing in people, has ___ employee spending, to ___ them with stability.
Answer: C — compromise; prioritised; reassure
- "will not compromise on investing": the idiom *compromise on* fits a firm commitment.
- "has prioritised spending on employee needs": consistent with that commitment.
- "in order to reassure them and provide… stability and certainty": reassurance goes with stability.
Other options fail on at least one blank: "debate on" / "confront them" (A), "prioritise on" / "compromised spending" (B), "assured spending" (D).
Q75 Old Cairo: framed portraits of Egyptian icons are ___; kings and presidents are all ___ on fading walls.
Answer: B — ubiquitous; immortalised
Portraits found in cafés, warehouses *and* barbershops are everywhere: ubiquitous. Figures held up as symbols of a glorious past are immortalised on the walls.
- A: "confounded" (confused) makes no sense.
- C: "rare" contradicts their presence in so many places.
- D: "substantial; dispersed" misses the tone of honouring the figures.
Q76 Early dementia is often ___ from normal ageing; neither dementia nor cognitive ageing is currently ___, though both may be slowed.
Answer: B — indistinguishable; reversible
Normal ageing "may naturally begin to show signs of cognitive impairment", so early dementia is hard to tell apart from it: indistinguishable. "Though they may be slowed" contrasts with something stronger that isn't yet possible: reversible.
- A: "distinguishable" contradicts the overlap; "permanent" breaks the "though" contrast.
- C: "visible" doesn't contrast with slowing.
- D: "irreversible" in the first blank makes no sense.
Q77 21st-century culture on an increasingly ___ scale is utility-driven; the worth of anything, even a ___ with another person, is judged ___.
Answer: D — global; relationship; pragmatically
(The printed paper omits the underline for the middle blank, "a ___ with another person", but each option supplies three words.)
- Modern culture spreading on an increasingly global scale.
- The list "an idea, an activity, an artwork, a ___ with another person" suggests a relationship.
- Worth judged by utility and the capacity to produce money is judged pragmatically.
The other options break the logic: "ordinal/nominal/conspicuous scale" are unidiomatic, and "imaginatively, meaningfully, diligently" contradict the instrumental outlook described.
Q78 ___ have to label their ___ posts to bring about transparency and ___ the interests of customers.
Answer: A — Influencers; promotional; safeguard
Influencers are the ones required to label promotional posts (paid endorsements), for transparency and to safeguard customers' interests.
- B: "incite the interests" is wrong.
- C: "capture the interests" doesn't fit a consumer-protection aim, and commercials aren't "posts".
- D: "multiply the interests" is meaningless.
Q79 Working from home may put your ___ life on ___; some find this ___ as they keep work and home separate.
Answer: D — private; screen; disconcerting
Video calls expose one's private life on screen, and people who keep work and home apart find this disconcerting (unsettling).
- A: "on microscope" is unidiomatic (it would be "under the microscope").
- B: "actual life on video" is awkward.
- C: "entire life on camera… complicated" misses the privacy point that the last clause sets up.
Q80 Pick the sentence misusing 'cord'.
Answer: B — The musician would hear a cord in his head and play each note individually.
A group of musical notes sounded together is a chord, not a "cord". B is wrong.
- A: "umbilical cord" is correct.
- C: a cord of wood is a standard measure of stacked firewood.
- D: a cord (thin rope) around the neck is correct.
Q81 Pick the sentence misusing 'tied'.
Answer: A — It was a full moon night and the tied was high, but he went boating and, unfortunately, he drowned.
The rise of the sea is the tide ("the tide was high"), not "tied". A is wrong.
- B: "tied up with" (formed a partnership) is correct.
- C: "tied the knot" (married) is correct.
- D: "securely tied" is correct.
Q82 Pick the sentence misusing 'ring'.
Answer: C — They were all soaking wet and their mother told them to ring their clothes first and then put them out to dry.
Squeezing water out of wet clothes is to wring them. C is wrong.
- A: a finger ring is correct.
- B: "ring them up" (phone) is correct.
- D: a cordon around a house is correct.
Q83 Pick the sentence misusing 'grave'.
Answer: A — The pet dog could not come to terms with his master’s death and went to grave for him, even refusing to eat for several days.
Mourning a death is to grieve ("grieved for him"), not "went to grave for him". A is wrong.
- B: "grave allegations" (serious) is correct.
- C: "mother's grave" (burial place) is correct.
- D: "a grave matter" (serious) is correct.
Q84 Pick the sentence misusing 'farther/further'.
Answer: C — If you need to farther your career, you should avoid all kinds of distractions.
To advance or promote something is to further it ("further your career"). "Farther" refers only to physical distance and is not a verb. C is wrong.
- A: "farther away from college" is physical distance, so it's correct.
- B: "further question" (additional) is correct.
- D: "fester any further" (to a greater degree) is correct.
Q85 Pick the sentence misusing 'climatic'.
Answer: D — The climatic moment of the match was when the captain got caught behind the wicket.
The most intense or decisive moment is the climactic moment (from *climax*). "Climatic" relates to climate. D is wrong.
- B and C use "climatic conditions" and "climatic testing" correctly.
- A ("hot climatic conditions" in a bus) is loose, since "weather" would be more precise, but it still refers to climate. D is the clear misuse.
Q86 Order four sentences about TikTok: its 'sunny corner' image, growth, a dark side, and ByteDance's China base.
Answer: A — 4213
- 4 opens with TikTok's self-image as the "last sunny corner on the Internet". It names TikTok, so it must come first.
- 2 continues: since launch, "the app" has brought a warm glow to users and competition to rivals. It builds on the sunny image.
- 1 turns with "Yet… others believe the sunny app has a dark side", which needs the positives of 4 and 2 before it.
- 3 explains the dark side: owner ByteDance is based in China, with its surveillance concerns.
Order: 4213. Options starting with 1 fail because "Yet" and "the sunny app" need an earlier reference. 4123 puts the turn before the growth story.
Q87 Order four sentences on clouds carrying drug-resistant bacteria long distances.
Answer: C — 4231
- 4 introduces the finding: researchers found clouds carried drug-resistant bacteria over long distances.
- 2 is the expert's explanation of where the bacteria usually live (on vegetation).
- 3: the wind carries "them" off that surface into the atmosphere.
- 1: once at high altitude, "they" travel worldwide.
Order: 4231. It follows the bacteria's journey from leaves to wind to altitude to the world. Options starting with 1 or 3 open with an unexplained "they/them".
Q88 Order four sentences on an environmental education programme motivating children.
Answer: B — 2431
- 2 states the general claim: environmental education can motivate children to act responsibly.
- 4 gives the example: 600 children from varied backgrounds joined an ocean-pollution programme.
- 3: "They" were motivated to act (reusable bottles, refusing straws), which needs 4 for "they".
- 1: "This instance highlights…" draws the conclusion about young people from different backgrounds, echoing "varied social and linguistic groups" in 4.
Order: 2431. 4231 leaves the general claim stranded between example and result. 1423 opens with "This instance" before any instance.
Q89 Order four sentences on the 1857 Meerut mutiny and the earlier Visakhapatnam mutiny.
Answer: D — 3142
- 3 sets the reference point: the 1857 Meerut mutiny is regarded as the First War of Independence.
- 1: "But the mutiny of Visakhapatnam predates this", where "this" is 1857.
- 4: "It happened in 1780", when British officers asked sepoys to fight Hyder Ali.
- 2: instead of fighting their heroic leader (Hyder Ali), the sepoys attacked the British and escaped.
Order: 3142. Options starting with 2 open mid-story, and 1243 has "this" with nothing to refer to.
Q90 Order four sentences on the rise of heat strokes and why they are fatal.
Answer: B — 4132
- 4 introduces the topic: heat strokes are more common than ever.
- 1: "What is more shocking" is how often "such strokes" lead to death, adding to 4.
- 3: "One main reason for this" is that people underestimate heat's effect, explaining the frequent deaths.
- 2 describes the mechanism: rising body temperature makes vital organs swell, causing death.
Order: 4132. Options starting with 2 or 3 lack the topic introduction, and "for this" in 3 needs 1 before it.
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About the IPMAT Indore exam pattern
IPMAT Indore is conducted by IIM Indore. The format below is the standard pattern — check the official notification for the current year's exact rules before you sit the exam.
| Sections | Quant (MCQ) · Quant (Short Answer) · Verbal Ability |
| Questions | 15 + 30 + 45 = 90 |
| Duration | 120 minutes |
| Marking | +4 / −1 (no negative marking on Short Answer) |