IPMAT Indore 2021 · Question Paper & Solutions
IIM Indore
Official question paper · For practice and educational use only. On mobile, the PDF may open in your default reader.
Worked solutions — IPMAT Indore 2021
Every question, solved step by step. Each answer is checked against the official key printed with the paper — 56 of 60 solutions reach it. Try each question before opening it.
4 answers correct the official key, where the working settles it. The key's own answer is shown alongside each one.
Quantitative Ability (Short Answer)
Q1 Number of positive divisors of 1890 × 130 × 170 that are not divisible by 45.
Answer: 320
Factorise: , , , so
Total divisors: .
Divisors divisible by : the power of 3 must be 2 or 3 (2 choices) and the power of 5 must be 1, 2 or 3 (3 choices), the rest free: .
Required count .
Q2 Sum of the first 10 terms of the series 1·3 + 5·7 + 9·11 + …
Answer: 5310
The -th term is .
Q3 Given $x_1 = 0$ and $x_{n+1} = x_n + 1 + 2\sqrt{1+x_n}$, find $x_{31}$.
Answer: 960
Add 1 to both sides:
So : the sequence is an AP with first term and difference 1, i.e. .
Hence and .
Q4 5 parallel lines and n lines perpendicular to them form 360 rectangles. Find n.
Answer: 9
A rectangle needs 2 of the 5 parallel lines and 2 of the perpendicular lines:
So .
Q5 Tap T1 alone empties a full tank in 30 min; T1 and T2 together in 20 min. Minutes for T2 alone?
Answer: 60
Rates (tank per minute): T1 , together .
T2 .
So T2 alone takes 60 minutes.
Q6 30 students, 5 courses each, 200-mark exams, average 80%. After two revaluations average is 80.02%. Maximum increase for either student?
Answer: 6
Total maximum marks across everyone .
The average rises from to , i.e. by of 30000:
Marks cannot fall, so the combined increase of the two students is 6. The largest one student can gain is when the other gains 0, which is 6 marks.
Q7 Minimum number of weights to weigh every integer gram amount from 1 to 100, weights placed only on one pan.
Answer: 7
The weights all go on one pan, so each weight is either used or not. With weights you can make at most different non-zero totals.
- : at most totals, so 6 weights are not enough.
- : the weights give every integer from 1 to (binary representation), which covers 1 to 100.
Minimum .
Q8 One line of $2x^2+axy+3y^2=0$ coincides with one of $2x^2+bxy-3y^2=0$; the other two are perpendicular. Find $a^2+b^2$.
Answer: 26
Put . The slopes of the first pair satisfy , and those of the second pair satisfy , i.e. .
Let the common slope be , the other slope of the first pair and of the second pair . From the products of roots:
Multiplying and using (perpendicular): , so .
Take : then , .
- Sum of roots, first pair: .
- Sum of roots, second pair: .
(The choice just flips both signs.) So .
Q9 With f(a) = max(a, 0), find the smallest integer x satisfying f(x − 3) + 2f(x + 1) = 8.
Answer: 3
Split by where the arguments turn non-negative.
- : both terms are 0, so the left side is .
- : , so , which is outside this range.
- : , which is valid.
The only solution is , so the smallest integer value is 3.
Q10 60% passed Physics and 68% passed Mathematics. At least what percentage passed both?
Answer: 28
, so
This minimum is reached when every student passed at least one subject. At least 28% passed both.
Quantitative Ability (MCQ)
Q11 f satisfies f(x + xy) = f(x) + f(xy) for all real x, y, and f(2020) = 1. Find f(2021).
Answer: A —
Putting gives , so .
For any and any , set , : then . For this is also true because . So is additive.
An additive function satisfies for integers , and therefore for every rational . Writing :
(This is what gives, but the argument does not need to assume is linear.)
Q12 Nested logarithms $\log_2[\log_3(\log_4 a)] = \log_3[\log_4(\log_2 b)] = \log_4[\log_2(\log_3 c)] = 0$. Find a + b + c.
Answer: C — 89
Remove one logarithm at a time, using and .
- .
- .
- .
.
Q13 In an AP, $S_5 = S_9$. Find the ratio $a_3 : a_5$.
Answer: A — 9 : 5
. These four terms are symmetric about the middle of and , so , i.e. and .
So .
Q14 A, B, A+B non-singular and AB = BA. Simplify $2A - B - A(A+B)^{-1}A + B(A+B)^{-1}B$. Key corrected
Answer: A —
Official key: D — $I$
Because , both and commute with and so with . Therefore
(Here holds because and commute.)
The whole expression is then
which is option A.
The official key gives option D (). That cannot be right as the question is printed: if and are replaced by and , every term of the expression is multiplied by , so the result must scale with and . A constant such as does not. A quick numerical check with random commuting matrices also returns .
Because A and B commute, B(A+B)⁻¹B − A(A+B)⁻¹A = B − A, and the expression collapses to A (option A). The official key gives I, which is impossible: replacing A and B by tA and tB scales every term by t, so the result cannot be a constant matrix.
Q15 Triangle angles A, B, C in AP with sin(2A + B) = 1/2. Find sin(B + 2C).
Answer: A —
Angles in AP give , and , so and .
Since , we have . The only angle in this range with sine is , so , giving and .
Q16 Unit digit of $(743)^{85} - (525)^{37} + (987)^{96}$.
Answer: A — 9
Unit digits repeat with period 4 for bases ending in 3 and 7.
- : , so the unit digit is 3.
- ends in 5.
- : , so the unit digit is 1.
The value is positive ( is by far the largest term), and its unit digit is .
Q17 Set of real p for which $3\sin^2 x + 12\cos x - 3 = p$ has at least one solution. Key corrected
Answer: C —
Official key: D — $[-15, 12]$
Let . Then
The vertex is at , outside , so increases over the whole interval:
- :
- :
Hence , which is option C.
The official key gives D, . The value 12 is the vertex value at , but can never equal 2, so has no solution. For example, would need , whose roots are and , both outside .
With c = cos x ∈ [−1, 1], p = −3c² + 12c runs from −15 to 9, so the set is [−15, 9] (option C). The official key's upper limit of 12 is the vertex value at c = 2, which cos x can never reach.
Q18 Diagonals of quadrilateral ABCD meet at O; areas of AOB and COD are 4 and 9. Minimum area of ABCD?
Answer: B — 25
Triangles AOB and AOD share the height from A to BD, so . Similarly . Hence
By AM–GM, , with equality when both equal 6 (a trapezium with ).
Minimum area .
Q19 Highest possible value of (four-digit number) ÷ (sum of its digits).
Answer: A — 1000
Let the leading digit be , so the number .
- If the other three digits are all 0, then and the digit sum is , so the ratio is exactly 1000.
- Otherwise the digit sum is at least , so the ratio is below .
The maximum is 1000 (for example 1000, 2000, …, 9000). Checking all four-digit numbers confirms this.
Q20 Quadratic f with a>0 has root −2; line g(x)=−2x passes through (a,b). Minimum of f(x)+9a+1? Key corrected
Answer: B — 1
passes through , so .
gives .
So . Since , the minimum of is , at .
Minimum of , which is option B, whatever the value of . A numerical check with several values of also gives 1.
The official key gives D (3). We could not reach 3 from the question as printed. It may come from a misprint in the constant or in .
b = −2a and c = −8a give f(x) = a[(x−1)² − 9], so min f = −9a and min(f + 9a + 1) = 1 (option B), whatever the value of a. The official key gives 3, which the question as printed cannot produce.
Q21 Language survey (Hindi, English, Tamil): find % speaking Hindi and exactly one of English/Tamil.
Answer: A — 22%
Take the population as 100.
- Exactly one language: 50; at least two: 40. So speakers of none .
- None is twice 'all three', so all three and exactly two .
- 'Exactly one language, that language being English or Tamil' , so only Hindi .
Let be the number who speak Hindi and exactly one of English/Tamil (that is, H&E only or H&T only). Then
Answer: 22%. (The other reading, 'speaks exactly one of English and Tamil regardless of Hindi', gives 11%, which is not an option. So the reading above is the intended one.)
Q22 Trains leave at noon and 2 PM; overtaking at 8 PM; speeds sum 140. Overtaking time if second starts 5 hours later?
Answer: C — 8 AM next day
Let the speeds be (first train) and (second). At 8 PM both have covered the same distance: the first has run 8 h and the second 6 h, so .
, km/h.
New case: the second train starts at 5 PM, when the first is km ahead. The relative speed is km/h, so catching up takes h.
5 PM + 15 h = 8 AM next day.
Q23 Number of 5-digit numbers with distinct digits where odd places hold only odd digits.
Answer: C — 2520
The odd places (1st, 3rd, 5th) must hold distinct odd digits from : ways. The leading digit is odd, so it is never 0.
The even places (2nd, 4th) take any 2 of the remaining 7 digits in order: ways.
Total . A brute-force count confirms this.
Q24 10 points, 5 of them collinear, no other three collinear. Number of distinct straight lines.
Answer: D — 36
If no three points were collinear there would be lines.
The 5 collinear points give pairs that all lie on one line, so replace those 10 lines by 1:
Q25 x-intercept of the line through the intersection of x+2y=4 and 2x+3y=6, perpendicular to 3x−y=2.
Answer: D — 6
Intersection: from , substitute into to get , so and . The point is .
has slope 3, so the perpendicular slope is .
Line: . Setting gives .
Q26 Six-team round-robin points table with partial entries; how many matches ended in a draw?
Answer: D — 6
Completing the table. Each team plays 5 matches (win 2, draw 1).
- A: , , → .
- B: , , → .
- C: , , → .
- D: , , → .
- E: , , points → , 4 points.
- Total points , so F has points.
Fixing the results.
- A never lost and B never drew, so A beat B.
- B never drew and E never won, so B beat E. That is E's only loss, so E drew with A, C, D and F.
- C's single draw is with E. C beat D (given), lost to B (given), and lost to A (A never lost). So C beat F.
- D's only loss is to C. D cannot draw with B, so D beat B. D's other results (vs A and vs F) are draws.
- A: drew with D and E, beat B, C and F.
- B: lost to A and D, beat C, E and F.
- F: lost to A, B and C; drew with D and E (2 points ✓).
Drawn matches: A–D, A–E, C–E, D–E, D–F, E–F, a total of 6. (A brute-force search over all outcomes finds this as the only consistent table.)
Q27 Which team had the highest number of draws?
Answer: D — Team E
From the completed table in Q26, the draws are A 2, B 0, C 1, D 3, E 4, F 2.
Team E has the most draws (4). It had no wins, since any win would give it at least 5 points.
Q28 Total points scored by Team F.
Answer: C — 2
The 15 matches distribute points. A, B, C, D and E have , so F has 2 points, from its draws with D and E (see Q26).
Q29 Which team was not defeated by Team A?
Answer: C — Team D
A has 3 wins and 2 draws. From Q26, A's draws are with D (D's only loss is to C, and D beat B) and with E (E's only loss is to B).
So A beat B, C and F but did not defeat D. E is also undefeated by A but is not among the options.
Q30 Team E was defeated by which team(s)? Key corrected
Answer: C — Only Team B
The table fixes the losses for A, B, C, D and E and the points for A, B, C and D; E and F must finish below 5 points; B beat C and C beat D. Checking every one of the ways the fifteen matches could go, exactly one tournament satisfies all of it (W-L-D, points):
- A 3-0-2, 8 points
- B 3-2-0, 6 points
- C 2-2-1, 5 points
- D 1-1-3, 5 points
- E 0-1-4, 4 points
- F 0-3-2, 2 points
B has no draws, so B's match against E was decisive, and E has no wins — so B beat E. That is E's single loss, which means every other team, A included, drew with E.
Answer: only Team B (option C).
The official key gives B, "Only Team A". That would need E to lose to A as well as to B (B cannot draw), giving E two losses where the table shows one.
The same unique tournament answers the rest of the set: 6 drawn matches (Q26), E with the most draws (Q27), F on 2 points (Q28) and D as the team A did not beat (Q29) — all four agree with the official key, which is a good check that the table has been read correctly.
An exhaustive search over all 3^15 possible results, against the printed table and the two given matches, leaves exactly one tournament. In it E loses only to B, so the answer is "Only Team B" (option C). The official key gives "Only Team A", which would give E two losses where the table shows one.
Verbal Ability
Q31 What the writer suggests about education in early times versus today.
Answer: B — there are similarities in the aims of education in early times and those of today.
The opening paragraph says logic and rhetoric once trained young men to spot spurious arguments. It then says Italy wants its youth prepared 'as their ancient counterparts were' to deal with social media. The aim, learning to recognise false arguments and facts, is the same then and now, so B is correct.
- A contradicts that parallel.
- C misreads 'privileged': the students were already privileged, and education was not meant to win them privilege.
- D (the basis of education has expanded) is not argued in the passage.
Q32 Important difference between traditional media and social media, per the passage.
Answer: B — traditional media tries to present different points of view.
The third paragraph says legacy media is ordered by a need for balance and at least tries to tell both sides of a story. On social media the user is the only editor and algorithms reinforce existing biases. So B is correct.
- A (reach) is never compared.
- C reverses the passage.
- D is wrong because the passage links fake stories to online media, not to traditional media.
Q33 How social media dangerously influences readers' opinions.
Answer: A — its choice of news items which are presented.
The passage says the effect of social media on opinion goes 'far beyond fake news'. The key mechanism is selection: algorithms show people more of what they 'like', so biases are reinforced rather than challenged. That is the choice of which items are presented, option A.
- B describes traditional media, not social media.
- C sounds plausible, but the passage does not say social media steers readers to motivated conclusions. It says it filters what they see.
- D covers only fake news, which the passage explicitly treats as just one part of the problem.
Q34 Meaning of 'vested interests' in paragraph 2.
Answer: C — self-serving intentions.
'Vested interests' are parties with a personal stake who act to benefit themselves. Here it means groups that hijack public debate for their own ends. C, self-serving intentions, captures this.
- A (hidden purposes): such interests need not be hidden.
- B (popular interests) is the opposite of a narrow stake.
- D (profitable motives) is too narrow, because the stake can be political, as with the propaganda example.
Q35 Antonym of 'spurious' (paragraph 1).
Answer: D — genuine
'Spurious' means false, fake or not what it claims to be, so its antonym is genuine.
- 'Dubious' is close to a synonym.
- 'Inferior' is about quality, not authenticity.
- 'Incisive' means sharp or penetrating and is unrelated.
Q36 Why the writer calls social media the present-day version of the Roman Forum.
Answer: B — discussing ideas.
The Roman Forum was the public space for debate and discussion. The passage talks about youth needing to 'engage meaningfully' there and about protecting public debate. So the comparison is to a space for discussing ideas.
- A and D describe misuses of that space (propaganda, spurious arguments), not what makes it a forum.
- C (political ambitions) is not mentioned.
Q37 The impatient, intolerant mother made every effort to ___.
Answer: A — domineer her children.
'Domineer' means to control someone in an overbearing, bossy way, which fits an impatient and intolerant mother. Option A is the intended choice.
- B uses 'dominate', but 'the child's lives' is faulty: a singular possessive with plural 'lives' and no agreement with 'her'.
- C, 'denominate', means to name or express in a unit (e.g. currency) and does not fit.
- D, 'dominion', is a noun and cannot be used as a verb.
(Note: in modern usage 'domineer' usually takes 'over', as in 'domineer over her children', but A is still clearly the best of the four options.)
Q38 Scientists consider how sustainable development ___ (effects/affects the citizen).
Answer: B — affects the citizen
The verb meaning 'to influence' is affect, so B is correct.
- A: 'effect' as a verb means to bring about, as in 'effect a change', which is wrong here.
- C: 'affective' relates to emotions and moods.
- D: 'affectionate' means loving. Neither fits.
Q39 I have more productive time because I keep the office gossips ___.
Answer: B — at arm's length
To keep someone at arm's length is an idiom for avoiding close involvement with them, which explains the gain in productive time.
- A ('a foot away') is literal and not an idiom.
- C ('at bay's length') confuses 'keep at bay' with 'at arm's length'.
- D ('out of harm's way') means keeping someone safe, the wrong sense.
Q40 We need to cut down expenses so that we are able to ___.
Answer: A — make ends meet.
To make ends meet is to earn just enough to cover expenses. Cutting costs is exactly how one does that.
- B means finishing off remaining details.
- C and D do not follow logically from cutting expenses.
Q41 A portion of the house collapsed because the contractor ___ and used poor materials.
Answer: B — cut corners
To cut corners is to do something cheaply or carelessly, often cutting quality to save money. That matches poor materials and a collapse.
- A is not an idiom.
- C ('bit the bullet') means facing something unpleasant bravely.
- D ('made a fortune') gives no cause for the collapse.
Q42 Our team has won every match since January. They seem to be ___.
Answer: C — on a roll.
On a roll means enjoying a continuous run of success, which fits an unbroken winning streak.
- 'Rolling in money' means very rich.
- 'Rolling in luck' is not a standard idiom.
- 'On a roller coaster' suggests ups and downs, the opposite of steady wins.
Q43 Correct the underlined phrase: Ocasio-Cortex 'is often described as merely being a junior member of the House'.
Answer: D — as a mere junior member of the House of Representatives
'Described as' takes a noun phrase directly: 'described as a mere junior member'. 'Being' is unnecessary, and 'merely being' is wordy.
- A repeats the original error.
- B puts 'merely' in front of the adjective 'junior', which is awkward, and keeps 'being'.
- C changes the meaning: 'described for' is unidiomatic.
D is concise and idiomatic.
Q44 Correct the underlined part: Kundapur 'their economy has been dependent in more recent years' on cotton and sugar.
Answer: B — its economy has in more recent years depended
The subject is a city, so the pronoun must be the singular possessive its. The present perfect 'has depended' fits a situation that continues into recent years.
- A uses 'it's' (short for 'it is') and the past perfect 'had depended', which clashes with 'recent years'.
- C ('having depended') leaves the main clause without a finite verb.
- D keeps the plural 'their'.
B is correct.
Q45 Correct the underlined part: 'less people die every year from infectious diseases then ever before'.
Answer: C — fewer people die every year from infectious diseases than ever before.
Two errors need fixing:
- 'People' is countable, so use fewer, not 'less'.
- A comparison needs than, not 'then'.
Only C fixes both. A fixes only 'fewer', and B fixes neither. D uses 'than have ever before', where 'have' does not match the verb 'die' (it would need 'did'), so it is ungrammatical.
Q46 Missing concluding sentence: captive breeding helps (bandicoots reduce bush fires) but some predators overhunt vulnerable species.
Answer: C — The revival of the ecosystem therefore, depends on the eating habits of the animals introduced therein.
The paragraph gives a benefit from reintroducing a herbivore (bandicoots) and a risk from reintroducing predators. A conclusion that covers both is that success depends on what the introduced animals eat, which is C.
- A draws a policy recommendation (revive more herbivores) that goes beyond the passage.
- B addresses only the carnivore half and exaggerates it ('so many').
- D contradicts the warning about predators.
Q47 Missing sentence: Tokyo Olympics postponed; locals wary, restrictions extensive; ___. Yet Japan is seen as a safe choice.
Answer: B — The shadow of the pandemic looms large over the Tokyo Olympics.
The sentences before the blank list worries: postponement, wary locals, anxious athletes, cut-back training and restrictions. The blank should sum these up by naming their cause, and the next sentence ('Yet Japan… safe choice') pushes back against that concern. B does both.
- A is positive in tone, which weakens the contrast that 'Yet' sets up.
- C is also positive, so 'Yet' would make no sense after it.
- D adds a new, unsupported issue (recession, funds) that the following sentences ignore.
Q48 Fill three blanks: assuming listening equals hearing is a ___; it makes effective listening seem ___; so we ___ a vital function.
Answer: D — misconception, instinctive, neglect
- Blank 1: a mistaken belief is a misconception.
- Blank 2: if listening were just hearing, it would come automatically, i.e. instinctive.
- Blank 3: making little effort to develop a skill is to neglect it.
Other options:
- A: 'forget a function' is odd, and 'blunder' is an act, not a belief.
- B: 'impulsive' means acting rashly, the wrong sense.
- C: 'natural' works, but 'reject' is too strong. We do not actively reject listening.
Q49 Fill blanks: governments relax pandemic ___; event management ___ see attendance reaching and potentially ___ pre-pandemic levels.
Answer: A — regulations, professionals, surpassing
- Governments relax pandemic regulations (rules and restrictions).
- People working in event management are professionals.
- 'Reaching and potentially surpassing' earlier levels moves logically from matching to exceeding.
Other options:
- B: 'confounding' levels makes no sense.
- C: 'reducing' contradicts a recovery, and one does not relax 'resolutions'.
- D: 'relax their pandemic systems' and 'event management masters' are unidiomatic.
Q50 This ___, ___ man was actually the ___ manager the company ever had.
Answer: B — assiduous, analytical, best
The two adjectives should describe the kind of person who would make a top manager, and the last blank needs a superlative. Assiduous (hard-working) and analytical explain why he was the best manager.
- A pairs 'ludicrous' (absurd) with 'assiduous', an incoherent description.
- C and D put non-superlative adjectives ('compassionate', 'friendly') in the last blank, which does not fit 'the ___ manager the company ever had'.
Q51 Best strategy to give an ___ is orally and in ___; also important to ___ the employee's achievements similarly.
Answer: C — appraisal, writing, recognise
Performance appraisals are delivered orally and in writing, and achievements should be recognised the same way. 'Deliver it orally as well as in ___' needs a mode of communication, and only 'writing' is one.
- A: 'in awards' is not a mode of delivery.
- B: 'indictment' (a formal accusation) is the wrong context, and 'realise achievements' is unidiomatic.
- D: 'in increments' is not a mode of delivery, and 'advertise' is inappropriate.
Q52 Aravalli: oldest ___ geological feature; tall mountains ___ to low hills; the hills have been ___ to many historical events.
Answer: C — surviving, eroded, witness
- The oldest surviving geological feature, i.e. still in existence despite its age.
- Over hundreds of millions of years mountains are eroded to low hills.
- The hills have been witness to events in history (the idiom is 'witness to').
Other options:
- A: 'sentinel to' is unidiomatic.
- B: 'destroyed to low hills' is wrong, since destroyed things do not remain as hills, and 'testament to events' is off.
- D: 'broken down' is less precise, and 'observers to' is unidiomatic.
Q53 Identify the incorrect word usage (climatic vs climactic).
Answer: D — The climactic changes from summer to winter affected the moods of the hero of the film.
Climatic refers to climate or weather; climactic refers to a climax.
In D, the change from summer to winter is a change in weather, so it should be 'climatic changes'. 'Climactic' is misused.
- A ('climatic changes') is correct.
- B ('climatic conditions') is correct.
- C ('climactic scene' of a movie) is correct.
Q54 Identify the incorrect word usage (luxurious vs luxuriant).
Answer: B — The rooms were adorned with luxuriant trimmings of gold, silk and velvet.
Luxurious means rich, costly and comfortable. Luxuriant means growing thickly and abundantly, as with foliage or hair.
Trimmings of gold, silk and velvet are costly, so B should say 'luxurious'.
- C ('luxuriant, golden tresses') correctly describes thick hair.
- A and D correctly use 'luxurious'.
Q55 Identify the incorrect word usage (intense vs intensive).
Answer: A — The king was under intensive pressure to protect the borders of his vast empire.
Intense describes a strong degree of a feeling or force, as in intense pressure, loathing or debate. Intensive describes concentrated, thorough effort or activity, as in intensive study or intensive care.
Pressure is a force of high degree, so A should be 'intense pressure'.
- B ('intense' loathing) is correct.
- C ('intensive study') is correct.
- D ('intense debate') is correct.
Q56 Identify the incorrect word usage (appraise vs apprise).
Answer: D — The soldiers returned to the camp to appraise the commanding officer of the enemy's location.
Appraise means to assess the value or quality of something. Apprise means to inform, and is used as 'apprise someone of something'.
In D the soldiers inform the officer 'of the enemy's location', so it should be 'apprise'.
- A (appraise a car) is correct.
- B (apprise the board of progress) is correct.
- C (appraise their own performance) is correct.
Q57 Identify the incorrect word usage (lighting / lightning / lightening).
Answer: C — I believe that skin lightning products have a lot of undesirable side effects.
- Lighting means setting alight: 'lighting of the lamp' (A) is correct.
- Lightning is the electrical flash in a storm: 'struck by lightning' (B) is correct.
- Lightening means making lighter in colour or weight: 'lightening her heavy load' (D) is correct.
In C, products that make skin lighter are 'skin lightening' products, so 'lightning' is misused.
Q58 Order sentences on international business: past familiarity with legal systems, modern trade demands more, understanding people, learning about overseas markets.
Answer: C — 4123
- 4 opens with the general thesis: to succeed globally you must learn about conditions in overseas markets.
- 1 gives the past: companies only learned legal and procedural differences.
- 2 turns with 'however': modern trade demands more.
- 3 explains that 'more': today companies must also understand the people. 'Today' contrasts with 'In the past' in 1.
'However' in 2 must follow the past practice in 1, and 3 spells out 2, so the order is 4-1-2-3.
- A (2314) starts with 'however', which has nothing to contrast with.
- B and D begin with 'Today… also', which assumes an earlier point.
Q59 Order sentences: TikTok video on influencer's views, social media expectations, 'should celebs always have a take' article, quoted question.
Answer: A — 2314
- 2 gives the general observation: social media makes us expect every post to be irreproachable.
- 3 introduces a specific article asking whether celebrities should always have a take.
- 1 says 'It mentions a video'. 'It' needs 3's 'article' as its antecedent.
- 4 is the quoted question, which reads as the comment on that video.
The pairs 3→1 ('It' = the article) and 1→4 (video → quoted reaction) are fixed, and 2 frames them, so the order is 2-3-1-4.
- B (2413) puts the quote before its context.
- C (3124) leaves 2 dangling at the end.
- D (1324) starts with 'It', which has no referent.
Q60 Order sentences: leopard cub found in trench, cub reunited with mother, leopards stray into villages, vet examines cub.
Answer: D — 3142
- 3 is the general context: leopards stray into villages because their habitat is shrinking.
- 1 is a specific recent incident: a cub found in a trench.
- 4 follows: a vet examined the cub ('it').
- 2 ends it: 'The cub was then taken back' and reunited with her mother.
The story runs discovery → examination → release (1-4-2), with the general statement 3 introducing it, so the order is 3-1-4-2.
- A (3421) has the vet examining before the cub is found.
- B and C start with the incident, and C puts the general statement in the middle of the story.
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About the IPMAT Indore exam pattern
IPMAT Indore is conducted by IIM Indore. The format below is the standard pattern — check the official notification for the current year's exact rules before you sit the exam.
| Sections | Quant (MCQ) · Quant (Short Answer) · Verbal Ability |
| Questions | 15 + 30 + 45 = 90 |
| Duration | 120 minutes |
| Marking | +4 / −1 (no negative marking on Short Answer) |